JOINT FIRE SUPPORT MULTIPLE QUESTION FILE
TEST LEVEL 10
Joint Fire Support MQF references validated as of 17 June 2020.
References:
ATP 3-09.30 Techniques for Observed Fire September 2017
ATP 3-09.32 Joint Application of Firepower (JFIRE) October 2019
FM 3-09 Field Artillery Operations and Fire Support March 2020
JP 3-09 Joint Fire Support April 2019
JP 3-09.3 Close Air Support June 2019
1. What are five requirements for achieving accurate first-round fire for effect?
2. A ________________ is: An entity or object that performs a function for the adversary
considered for possible engagement or other action. In intelligence usage, a country,
area, installation, agency, or person against which intelligence operations are directed.
An area designated and numbered for future firing. In gunfire support usage, an impact
burst that hits the target (JP 3-60).
3. A target identified too late, or not selected for action in time, to be included in deliberate
targeting that, when detected or located, meets criteria specific to achieving objectives
and is processed using dynamic targeting.
a. Target
b. Time Sensitive Target
c. Target of Opportunity
d. Unplanned Target
4. A ______________ is a target that is known to exist in the operational environment,
upon which actions are planned using deliberate targeting, creating effects which
support commander’s objectives.
a. Established Target
b. Approved Target
c. Priority Target
d. Planned Target
5. A _____________ is a planned target upon which fires or other actions are scheduled
for prosecution at a specified time.
a. Scheduled Target
b. Specified Target
c. Time Sensitive Target
d. Priority Target
6. A ___________ is a planned target upon which fires or other actions are determined
using deliberate targeting and triggered, when detected or located, using dynamic
targeting.
a. Scheduled Target
b. On-call Target
c. Deliberate Target
d. Dynamic Target
7. A _______________ is a target, based on either time or importance, on which the
delivery of fires takes precedence over all the fires for the designated firing unit or
element.
a. Priority Target
b. Immediate Suppression
c. Final Protective Fire
d. On-call Target
8. ________________ is an immediately available prearranged barrier of fire designed to
impede enemy movement across defensive lines or areas.
9. A __________________ consists of two or more targets on which fire is desired
simultaneously.
a. Collective Target Set
b. Series of Targets
c. Multiple Target
d. Group of Targets
10. A ____________________ is a number of targets and/or group(s) of targets planned to
be fired in a predetermined sequence to support a maneuver operation.
a. Sequential Targets
b. Series of Targets
c. Collective Target Set
d. Program of Targets
11. _________ can be conducted at any place and time friendly forces are in close proximity
to enemy forces. The word “close” does not imply a specific distance; rather, it is
situational. The requirement for detailed integration because of proximity, fires, or
movement is the determining factor.
12. Occupying an observation post using SLOCTOP; what is the number one priority for the
team?
________________________________
13. True / False: Occupying an observation post using SLOCTOP; during O-observation
ensure all team members are proficient in friendly/threat forces recognition.
a. True
b. False
14. What is the preferred method of establishing accurate target location?
a. Automated Target Location Tools
b. LLDR
c. Map, Compass, and Binoculars
d. PFED
15. An observer must be able to self-locate to within ______ meters or ________ meters if
degraded by lack of position locating systems or other navigational aids.
16. Azimuth is a horizontal angle measured clockwise from a north base line that could be.
a. North, Magnetic, or Map
b. Mils, Degrees, Cardinals
c. True North, Grid North, or Magnetic North
d. True, Map, or Magnetic
17. ____________ is the interior angle formed at the target by the intersection of the
observer-target and the gun-target lines with its vertex at the target.
18. The M22/M24 binocular reticle pattern is divided into increments of _______ with shorter
hash marks at _________ increments.
19. Using a declinated M2 or a lensatic7 compass on a tripod or other stable platform, the
observer can measure direction to an accuracy of ____________. Take care when using
a compass around electronic devices such as radios and computers, or large
concentrations of metal such as vehicles. Observers should move about ____________
away from vehicles to avoid incorrect readings.
a. 1 mil and 100 meters
b. 10 mils and 50 meters
c. 1 mil and 50 meters
d. 10 mils and 100 meters
20. If angle T is ___________ or greater, the FDC should tell the observer. If the observer is
told that angle T is _________ or greater, at first observer continues to use the original
OT factor to make deviation corrections. If the observer is getting more of a correction
than asked for, the observer should consider cutting the corrections to better adjust
rounds onto the target.
21. In artillery and mortar calls for fire, the observers will always convert direction to
__________ direction in the CFF request.
22. Using a protractor, the observer can scale direction from a map to an accuracy of
_________ mils.
a. 20
b. 10
c. 100
d. 1
23. Laser range finders are the preferred means of determining the observer-target distance.
When a laser range finder is used, distance may be determined to the nearest
__________ meters.
24. Using flash to bang, the observer counts the number of seconds between the time the
round impacts (flash) and the time the sound reaches the observer (bang) and multiply
by _________ meters/second. The answer is the approximate number of meters
between the observer and the round.
25. If there is a significant difference in vertical shift (greater than or equal to _________
meters in altitude between the observer's position or known point and the target), the
observer includes the vertical shift in his target location (expressed to the nearest
_______ meters).
a. 30, 10
b. 50, 10
c. 35, 5
d. 5, 5
26. The terrain sketch is a panoramic sketch as precise as possible of the terrain by the
observer of his area of responsibility. It aids in target location in a static environment.
What should the terrain sketch also provide?
a. A call for fire cheat card
b. Means of orienting relief personnel
c. Code words to deceive enemy if lost
d. Fires net frequency
27. The warning order clears the net for the fire mission. The warning order consists of
a. Type of adjustment, callsign, and method of target location
b. Mission type, type of adjustment, and the size of element to FFE
c. Callsign, type of adjustment, and the method of target location
d. Type of mission, the size of the element to FFE, and the method of target location
28. Normally, _________________ missions are fired on planned targets, and a length of
time to continue firing (duration) is associated with the call for fire.
a. Final Protective Fire
b. Suppression
c. FFE
d. Immediate Suppression or Immediate Smoke
29. When engaging a planned target or target of opportunity that has taken friendly
maneuver or elements under fire, the observer announces __________________
(followed by the target location).
a. Final Protective Fire
b. Suppression
c. FFE
d. Immediate Suppression or Immediate Smoke
30. When conducting an immediate suppression or immediate smoke mission, the CFF is
sent in how many transmissions?
__________________
31. True / False: In a polar plot mission the FDC only needs to know the target location.
a. True
b. False
32. In a polar plot mission a _____________ tells the FDC how far, in meters, the target is
located above or below the observer's location.
a. Altitude
b. Elevation
c. Angle T
d. Vertical Shift
33. Methods of Engagement: If an observer wants HE and then WP what term would they
use in the call for fire?
_______________________
34. If the observer wishes to control the time of delivery of fire, they would include
_____________ in the method of control.
35. If target length, or length and width are given, the observer must also give __________.
a. Depth
b. Attitude
c. Radius
d. Altitude
36. How many HOB spottings are there and what are they?
_____________________________________________________________________________.
37. During adjustments of a fire mission an observer spots round burst left of the target
along the OT line. The observer measures the angular deviation as 70 mils. His
deviation spotting is _______________.
38. During subsequent corrections the observer sends the observer-target direction if it has
not been sent previously or if the observer-target direction changes by more than
____________ from the previously announced direction.
a. 10 mils
b. 50 mils
c. 20 mils
d. 100 mils
39. Attitude is sent to the nearest _______ and less than 3200 mils.
a. 1 mil
b. 10 mils
c. 20 mils
d. 100 mils
40. What is the max range of the M120 120mm mortar? ______________
41. ________________ is fires that directly support land, maritime, amphibious, and special
operations forces to engage enemy forces, combat formations, and facilities in pursuit of
tactical and operational objectives (Joint Publication [JP] 3-09.3).
42. _______________________ is the planning and executing of fires so that targets are
adequately covered by a suitable weapon or group of weapons (JP 3-09). The FIST
must maintain situational understanding at all times and monitor voice requests for fire
support within the maneuver element to prevent fratricide, civilian and non-combatant
casualties, and ensure that collateral damage is achieved only to the level to achieve
mission success, as the result of friendly fire support. The FIST must advise the
commander on any FSCMs in effect.
a. Fire Support Coordination
b. Indirect Fires Execution
c. Fire Support Planning
d. Joint Fires Coordination
43. True / False: When occupying an observation post using SLOCTOP; A reconnaissance
security sweep should be made 180 degrees forward of the OP.
a. True
b. False
44. Occupying an observation post using SLOCTOP; Identify the item that is NOT part of L-
Location.
a. Select a position that is not sky lined or easily identifiable as an observation post
(military crest, 2/3 up, on nondescript high ground).
b. Send the team location to the fires cell, artillery/mortar fire direction center (FDC) and
supported maneuver organization.
c. Select a position on the highest terrain in order to quickly detect enemy forces
(provides the best observation).
d. The team should prepare its observed fire (OF) fan for use and begin its terrain
sketch.
45. Permissive fire support coordination measures ____________ the attack of targets by
reducing the coordination necessary for the clearance of fires.
a. Restrictive
b. Redundant
c. Increase
d. Facilitate
46. ____________________fire support coordination measures are those that provide
safeguards for friendly forces and noncombatants, facilities, or terrain.
47. What is NOT a method in which to achieve responsive fires?
a. Rehearsals
b. Planning fire support requirements in advance
c. Streamlining the call for fire by shortening the number of transmissions
d. Continually training observers in all aspects of fire support
48. The observer normally uses __________ for suppression and smoke missions.
______________ will tell the FDC the total time to engage a target.
a. Time on target
b. Duration
c. Time
d. Interval
49. A __________ is the observer's determination of the location of the burst, or the mean
point of impact (MPI) of a group of bursts, with respect to the adjusting point as observed
along the observer-target line.
a. Spotting
b. Correction
c. Impact
d. Adjusting point
50. True / False: MARK is included in the method of engagement to indicate that the
observer is going to call for rounds for either of the following reasons
-to orient themselves in zone of observation
-to indicate targets to ground troops, aircraft, or other observers
-to mark the Illumination optimal height of burst
a. True
b. False
