The JFS MQF is intended to replace the skill level FIST test, the MQF will not be

administered by skill level. This will be the only test used for 13F/13A certifications. All Soldiers
are authorized to maintain a copy of the MQF. When testing is required for certifications or
training, 50 questions from the MQF will be selected by the Fire Support Master Gunner. The
50-question test should encompass all references. The MQF supplied to Soldiers will have the
questions but not the answers, it is the responsibility of the individual to research and study the
correct answer.

References:

ATP 3-09.30 Techniques for Observed Fire September 2017

ATP 3-09.32 Joint Application of Firepower (JFIRE) November 2023
FM 3-09 Field Artillery Operations and Fire Support April 2020
JP 3-09 Joint Fire Support April 2019
JP 3-09.3 Close Air Support June 2019 (Validated on 07 June 2021)

ATP 3-09.30 Observed Fires

1. What are the five requirements for achieving accurate first-round fire for effect?

a. _____Accurate Target Location and

Size_________________________________

b. _____Accurate Firing Unit

Location______________________________________

c. _____Accurate Weapon and Ammunition

Information_______________________

d. _____Accurate Meteorological
Information________________________________

e. _____Accurate Computational
Procedures________________________________

2. As an observer, which of the five requirements for achieving accurate first-round fire for
effect are you solely responsible for?

a. Accurate Firing Unit Location

b. Accurate Target Location and Size
c. Accurate Computational Procedures
d. Accurate Meteorological Information
3. True/False: The observer serves as the “eyes” of the indirect fire systems and the FDC
serves as the “brain” of the system.

a. True
b. False

4. What and its elements integrate the fires warfighting function into operations?

a. Joint Effects Cell

b. Fire Direction Center
c. Fire Support Element
d. Fires Cell

5. What asset provides the commander flexibility, range, speed, lethality, precision, and the
ability to mass fires at a desired time and place?

a. Unmanned Aircraft
b. Mortars
c. Fixed Wing Aircraft
d. Army Attack Aviation

6. _____ is executed in support of friendly forces in close enemy contact (i.e., close combat
attack) or against enemy forces out of contact with friendly forces.

a. Close Combat Attack

b. Army Attack Aviation
c. Close Air Support
d. Joint Fire Power

7. Which branch of service employs it’s attack rotary wing aviation primarily as a CAS
platform?

a. Army
b. Navy
c. Air Force
d. Marine Corps

8. True/False: Army Attack Aviation can perform CAS in support of another component.

a. True
b. False
9. _____ can support or conduct close combat attack, CAS, strike coordination and
reconnaissance, AI, and other joint fires missions.

a. Army Attack Helicopters

b. Joint Fires Observer
c. Joint Combat Attack
d. Unmanned Aircraft

10. _____ normally produces the specific effect on a target with the minimum
expenditure of ammunition. It also reduces our vulnerability to adversary target
acquisition.

a. Fires Planning
b. Target Synchronization
c. Targeted Effects
d. Massing Fires

11. Failure to select proper shell fuze combinations may result in what?

a. Undesired Effects on Target

b. Reduction in Desired Effects on Target
c. Excessive Expenditure of Ammunition
d. All of the Above

12. Aside from tactical considerations, the selection of targets, munitions, and
techniques of fire must comply with what?

a. Law of War
b. Geneva and Hague Conventions
c. Both A and B
d. None of the Above

13. Observers equipped with nothing more than a map, binoculars, and compass
typically have a mean target location error of about how many meters?

a. _____250
Meters____________________________________________________

14. Who is in charge of the FIST and also the principal fire support advisor to the
commander when attached to or supporting a company or troop?

a. Company/Troop FSO
b. Battalion/Squadron FSO
c. Company/Troop FSNCO
d. Battalion/Squadron FSNCO
15. The _____ has the responsibility to integrate fire support with the scheme of
maneuver and provides the commander’s intent for an operation and issues guidance,
including guidance for fire support. The _____ translates the guidance into fire support
tasks.

a. Maneuver Commander / FSO

b. Brigade FSO / Battalion FSO
c. Brigade Commander / Brigade FSO
d. DIVARTY Commander / FIST

16. Select all that apply: What is a Target?

a. An entity or object that performs a function for the adversary considered

for possible engagement or other action.
b. A country, area, installation, agency, or person against which intelligence
operations are directed.
c. An area designated and numbered for future firing.
d. An impact burst that hits the target.

17. What is a target that is identified too late, or not selected for action in time, to be
included in deliberate targeting that, when detected or located, meets criteria specific to
achieving objectives and is processed using dynamic targeting?

a. Target
b. Time Sensitive Target
c. Target of Opportunity
d. Unplanned Target

18. A _____ is a target that is known to exist in the operational environment, upon
which actions are planned, using deliberate targeting, creating effects which support
commander’s objectives.

a. Established Target
b. Approved Target
c. Priority Target
d. Planned Target

19. A _____ is a planned target upon which fires or other actions are scheduled for
prosecution at a specified time.

a. Scheduled Target
b. Specified Target
c. Time Sensitive Target
d. Priority Target
20. A _____ is a planned target upon which fires or other actions are determined
using deliberate targeting and triggered, when detected or located, using dynamic
targeting.

a. Scheduled Target
b. On-call Target
c. Deliberate Target
d. Dynamic Target

21. A _____ is a target, based on either time or importance, on which the delivery of
fires takes precedence over all the fires for the designated firing unit or element.

a. Priority Target
b. Immediate Suppression
c. Final Protective Fire
d. On-call Target

22. What is an immediately available prearranged barrier of fire designed to impede

enemy movement across defensive lines or areas?

a. _____Final Protective
Fire_____________________________________________

23. When planning an FPF, what is the approximate length and width in meters for
an FPF fired with 4 tubes of 120mm Mortars?

a. 150 / 50
b. 300 / 50
c. 280 / 75
d. 300 / 75

24. When planning an FPF, what is the approximate length and width in meters for
an FPF fired with 8 guns of 155mm Howitzers?

a. 400 / 50
b. 350 / 75
c. 210 / 35
d. 400 / 75

25. What is the DA form used for the Target List Worksheet?

a. DA Form 4856
b. DA Form 4187
c. DA Form 4655
d. DA Form 5429
26. Using target number AA1000 with an altitude of
420m and a target description of ENY Dismounts, properly label the point target below.

27. Using target number AA1005, properly label the linear target below.

28. Using target number AA1010, properly label the rectangular target below.

29. Using target number AA1015, properly label the circular target below.

30. Using target number AA1020, C Battery, 2-15 FA, a 155mm Howitzer battery,
properly label the FPF below.

31. A _____ consists of two or more targets on which fire is desired simultaneously.

a. Collective Target Set

b. Series of Targets
c. Multiple Targets
d. Group of Targets
32. A _____ is a number of targets and/or group(s) of targets planned to be fired in a
predetermined sequence to support a maneuver operation.

a. Sequential Targets
b. Series of Targets
c. Collective Target Set
d. Program of Targets

33. A _____ consists of a number of planned targets of a similar nature that are
planned for sequential attack.

a. Sequential Targets
b. Series of Targets
c. Group of Targets
d. Program of Targets

34. What field artillery team is organic to each maneuver battalion and selected units
to plan and coordinate all available company supporting fires?

a. Fire Support Team

b. Fire Support Element
c. Fire Direction Team
d. Fire Support Cell

35. Fire support planning is integrated through targeting and the running estimate. It
includes developing integrated fire plans using what?

a. Target Lists, Final Protective Fires, Fire Support Execution Matrix, Sync
Map
b. Target Lists, No Fire Lists, Fire Support Execution Matrix, Scheme of
Fires, and Overlays
c. Target Lists, Sync Map, Fire Support Execution Matrix, Scheme of Fires,
and Overlays
d. Target Lists, No Fire Lists, Fire Support Sync Matrix, Scheme of Fires,
and Overlays

36. _____ is the planning and executing of fires so that targets are adequately
covered by a suitable weapon or group of weapons.

a. Fire Support Coordination

b. Indirect Fires Execution
c. Fire Support Planning
d. Joint Fires Coordination
37. _____ can be conducted at any place and time friendly forces are in close
proximity to enemy forces.

a. Army Attack Aviation

b. Danger Close
c. Close Combat Attack
d. Close Air Support

38. _____ is the authority to control the maneuver of and grant weapons release
clearance to attacking aircraft.

a. Terminal Attack Control (TAC)

b. Close Air Support (CAS)
c. Close Combat Attack (CCA)
d. Tactical Risk Assessment (TRA)

39. What type of control requires control of individual attacks and the JTAC/FAC (A)
to visually acquire the attacking aircraft and visually acquire the target for each attack?

a. Type 1 Control
b. Type 2 Control
c. Type 3 Control
d. Type 4 Control

40. What type of control is used when the JTAC/FAC (A) requires control of
individual attacks and is unable to visually acquire the attacking aircraft at weapons
release or is unable to visually acquire the target?

a. Type 1 Control
b. Type 2 Control
c. Type 3 Control
d. Type 4 Control

41. What type of control is used when the JTAC/FAC (A) requires the ability to
provide clearance for multiple attacks within a single engagement subject to specific attack
restrictions.

a. Type 1 Control
b. Type 2 Control
c. Type 3 Control
d. Type 4 Control
42. What does each letter of the memory aid FA-PARCA stand for?

a. F-_____Fire Support
Task_____________________________________________

b. A-_____Allocation of Assets or Targets to Subordinate

Units__________________

c. P-_____Positioning Guidance for Fire Support Assets and

Observers___________

d. A-_____Attack
Guidance______________________________________________

e. R-
_____Restrictions________________________________________________
_

f. C-_____Coordinating
Instructions_______________________________________

g. A-
_____Assessment________________________________________________
_

43. Select all that apply: What types of close air support terminal attack control can a
joint fires observer provide target information in support of?

a. Type 1 Control
b. Type 2 Control
c. Type 3 Control
d. Type 4 Control

44. How many options are used to employ the fire support team?

a. 4
b. 5
c. 3
d. 2

45. Which FIST employment option consolidates the FIST at the battalion level?

a. Option 1 – Battalion Fire Support Team

b. Option 2 – Company or Troop FIST
c. Option 3 – Platoon Forward Observer
d. Option 4 – Consolidated FIST
46. Which FIST employment option has the FIST assets remaining at the company
or troop level?

a. Option 1 – Battalion Fire Support Team

b. Option 2 – Company or Troop FIST
c. Option 3 – Platoon Forward Observer
d. Option 4 – Consolidated FIST

47. Which FIST employment option makes it to where most platoons in the
maneuver companies or troops receive a forward observer?

a. Option 1 – Battalion Fire Support Team

b. Option 2 – Company or Troop FIST
c. Option 3 – Platoon Forward Observer
d. Option 4 – Consolidated FIST

48. Which forward observer control option would you use for a more experienced
and highly trained FO team, allowing them to call for fire from fire support assets available
to support the operation?

a. Option 1 - Decentralized
b. Option 2 - Designated
c. Option 3 - Centralized
d. None of the Above

49. Which forward observer control option would you use to assign a particular fire
support asset to an FO from which they may request fire support?

a. Option 1 - Decentralized
b. Option 2 - Designated
c. Option 3 - Centralized
d. None of the Above

50. Which forward observer control option would you use for maximum control that
requires the FO to contact the FIST for each call for fire?

a. Option 1 - Decentralized
b. Option 2 - Designated
c. Option 3 - Centralized
d. None of the Above
51. Which vehicle employment option positions the FSO in the fire support vehicle?

a. Option 1 - Control
b. Option 2 - Observation
c. Option 3 - Independent Observer
d. None of the Above

52. Which vehicle employment option positions the fire support vehicle on terrain to
maximize use of the laser designator and rangefinder while the FSO rides in the
commander’s vehicle?

a. Option 1 - Control
b. Option 2 - Observation
c. Option 3 - Independent Observer
d. None of the Above

53. Which vehicle employment option maximizes assets available to the battalion or
brigade commander but might degrade the supported unit?

a. Option 1 - Control
b. Option 2 - Observation
c. Option 3 - Independent Observer
d. None of the Above

54. Personnel authorized to perform JFO duties must be-

a. A graduate of a primary duty skill identifier and additional ASI producing

school.
b. Designated in writing by the first O-4 in the unit chain of command.
c. Maintain qualification as described in the ATP 3-09.30 and the JFO MOA
d. All of the Above

55. Occupying an observation post using SLOCTOP; Identify the item that is NOT
part of L-Location.

a. Select a position that is not sky lined or easily identifiable as an

observation post.
b. Send the team location to the fires cell, artillery/mortar FDC, and
supported maneuver organization.
c. Select a position on the highest terrain in order to quickly detect enemy
forces.
d. The team should prepare its OF fan for use and begin its terrain sketch.
56. Occupying an observation post using SLOCTOP; what is the number one priority
for the team?

a. Observation
b. Communication
c. Targeting
d. Security

57. Occupying an observation post using SLOCTOP; Identify the item that is NOT
part of T-targeting.

a. Locate targets using the most accurate and expedient means available,
incorporate the targets into the terrain sketch.
b. Conceal the laser designator and rangefinder and operate all lasing
devices within safety parameters.
c. Affix the night and thermal device near the laser designator and
rangefinder as soon as possible.
d. Refine company/troop targets and those assigned by higher
headquarters.

58. True / False: Occupying an observation post using SLOCTOP; during O -

Observation ensure all team members are proficient in friendly or adversary forces
recognition.

a. True
b. False

59. Occupying an observation post using SLOCTOP; what does the P stand for?

a. Position Occupation
b. Precision Targeting
c. Position Refinement
d. Position Improvement

60. What should be used as the primary means to determine the targets’ location?

a. Precision Target Location Equipment

b. LLDR
c. Map, Compass, and Binoculars
d. PFED
61. _____ is the process of measurement of a feature or location on the earth to
determine an absolute latitude, longitude, and elevation.

a. Targeting
b. Mensuration
c. Accuracy
d. Orienting

62. An observer must be able to self-locate to within _____ meters or _____ meters
if degraded by lack of position locating systems or other navigational aids.

a. 1 or 150
b. 10 or 150
c. 10 or 100
d. 100 or 250

63. Azimuth is a horizontal angle measured clockwise from a north base line that
could be-

a. North, Magnetic, or Map

b. Mils, Degrees, Cardinals
c. True North, Grid North, or Magnetic North
d. True, Map, or Magnetic

64. When converting degrees to mils you must multiply the number of degrees by
what to determine mils?

a. 17.8
b. 4.20
c. 17.5
d. 15

65. What is the interior angle formed at the target by the intersection of the observer-
target and the gun-target lines with its vertex at the target?

a. OT Factor
b. Angle T
c. Vertex Angle
d. Vertical Angle
66. If angle T is 500 mils or greater and the observer is getting more of a correction
than asked for, what should the observer consider doing?

a. End the mission.

b. Double the OT factor.
c. Double the corrections.
d. Cut the corrections.

67. The M22/M24 binocular reticle pattern is divided into increments of _____ with
shorter hash marks at _____ increments.

a. 100 meters and 10 meters

b. 10 meters and 5 meters
c. 100 mils and 50 mils
d. 10 mils and 5 mils

68. True/False: Hand measurements of angular deviation are the same for all
observers.

a. True
b. False

69. Using a declinated M2 or a lensatic compass on a tripod or other stable platform,

the observer can measure direction to an accuracy of how many mils? How far away
should observers move away from vehicles to avoid incorrect readings?

a. 1 mil and 100 meters

b. 10 mils and 50 meters
c. 1 mil and 50 meters
d. 10 mils and 100 meters

70. What direction will observers convert their direction to for the CFF requests
unless otherwise stated?

a. True North
b. Magnetic
c. Lensatic
d. Grid

71. Using a protractor, the observer can scale direction from a map to an accuracy of
how many mils?

a. 20
b. 10
c. 100
d. 1
72. When a laser range finder is used, distance may be determined to the nearest
how many meters?

a. 10
b. 5
c. 1
d. 100

73. When using the flash to bang method of distance determination, how many
meters per second do you multiply by the number of seconds between the time the round
impacts (flash) and the time the sound reaches the observer (bang)?

a. 350
b. 400
c. 450
d. 250

74. Utilizing the flash to bang method of distance determination, you observe the
flash and count 14 seconds before hearing the impact, how far is the impact?

a. 5600 meters
b. 6300 meters
c. 3500 meters
d. 4900 meters

75. An OF fan has how many radial arms that are 100 mils apart and cover 1,600
mils?

a. 16
b. 17
c. 12
d. 15

76. Vertical shift is only sent in the target location if the difference in vertical shift is
greater than or equal to how many meters? Vertical shift is expressed to the nearest how
many meters?

a. 30, 10
b. 50, 10
c. 35, 5
d. 5, 5
77. What are the five parts of a terrain sketch?

a. _____The
Skyline___________________________________________________

b. _____Intermediate Crests, Hills, and

Ridges_______________________________

c. _____Other Natural Terrain

Features____________________________________

d. _____Manmade
Features_____________________________________________

e. _____Lables________________________________________________
_______

78. What are the methods of target location?

a. _____Grid Coordinates Using Precision Imagery with Mensuration

Tools________

b. _____Laser
Grid____________________________________________________

c. _____Laser
Polar____________________________________________________

d. _____Grid Coordinates Using Map

Spot__________________________________

e. _____Polar
Plot_____________________________________________________

f. _____Shift From a Known

Point________________________________________

79. Fill in the circular error, in feet and meters, for the following TLE categories:

a. CAT I _____0-6 m / 0-20 ft_____

b. CAT II _____7-15 m / 21-50 ft___

c. CAT III _____16-30 m / 51-100 ft_

d. CAT IV _____31-91 m / 101-300 ft

80. Which of the following is NOT a part of combat identification?

a. Detection
b. Location
c. Identification
d. Clarification

81. What are the six elements of the call for fire?

a. _____Observer
Identification___________________________________________

b. _____Warning
Order_________________________________________________

c. _____Target
Location________________________________________________

d. _____Target
Description______________________________________________

e. _____Method of
Engagement__________________________________________

f. _____Method of Fire and

Control_______________________________________

82. What does the warning order consist of?

a. Type of adjustment, callsign, and method of target location

b. Mission type, type of adjustment, and the size of element to FFE
c. Callsign, type of adjustment, and the method of target location
d. Type of mission, the size of the element to FFE, and the method of target
location

83. What type of mission is normally fired on planned targets, and a length of time to
continue firing (duration) is associated with the call for fire?

a. Adjust Fire
b. Suppress
c. FFE
d. Immediate Suppression or Immediate Smoke
84. What type of mission would you use when engaging a planned target or target of
opportunity that has taken friendly maneuver or elements under fire?

a. Adjust Fire
b. Suppression
c. FFE
d. Immediate Suppression or Immediate Smoke

85. True / False: When conducting an immediate mission the CFF is sent in three
transmissions.

a. True
b. False

86. Using the laser grid method of target location during an adjust fire mission; how
are the corrections sent?

a. Same as a standard grid mission.

b. Deviation correction, range correction, and height of burst correction.
c. In the form of a grid to the burst location.
d. Sent only as a refinement.

87. True / False: In a polar plot mission the FDC only needs to know the target
location.

a. True
b. False

88. In a polar plot mission, a _____ tells the FDC how far, in meters, the target is
located above or below the observer's location.

a. Altitude
b. Elevation
c. Angle T
d. Vertical Shift

89. True / False: In a shift from known point mission the range shift is in relation to
the observer’s location.

a. True
b. False
90. The observer must describe the target in enough detail that the FDC can
determine the amount and type of ammunition to use. The target description should
contain the following:

a. _____What the Target

Is______________________________________________

b. _____What the Target is

Doing_________________________________________

c. _____The Number of Elements in the

Target______________________________

d. _____The Degree of
Protection_________________________________________

e. _____The Target Size and

Shape_______________________________________

91. What is the purpose of the target description in a call for fire?

a. So the FDC can determine the amount and type of ammunition to use.
b. So the commander can approve the target engagement.
c. To determine the priority on the High Payoff Target List (HPTL).
d. So the ground commander can make a Tactical Risk Assessment (TRA).

92. The method of engagement consists of:

a. type of mission, ammunition, danger close, attitude, and mark

b. warning order, type of mission, trajectory, danger close, and mark
c. warning order, type of mission, trajectory, attitude, distribution, and mark
d. type of adjustment, trajectory, ammunition, distribution, danger close, and
mark

93. True / False: The two types of adjustment that may be employed are area and
precision.

a. True
b. False

94. True / False: Precision fire is used for Final Protective Fires (FPF) and
destruction missions.

a. True
b. False
95. What are the danger close distances for artillery and mortars / 5-inch naval guns
and TLAM?

a. 600m / 750m
b. 600m / 1000m
c. 600m / 700m
d. 600m / 500m

96. Which of the following is NOT a reason for MARK to be included in the method of
engagement?

a. To orient self in zone of observation.

b. To indicate targets to ground troops, aircraft, or other observers.
c. To mark the Illumination optimal height of burst.
d. Both A and B

97. If an observer wants HE and then WP what term would they use in the call for
fire?

a. Ammunition
b. Volume of fire
c. Followed by
d. Projectile

98. If target length, or length and width are given, the observer must also give
_____.

a. Depth
b. Attitude
c. Radius
d. Altitude
99. What are the 14 methods of control from ATP 3-09.30?

a. _____Fire When
Ready_______________________________________________

b. _____At My
Command_______________________________________________

c. _____Cannot
Observe________________________________________________

d. _____Time on
Target_________________________________________________

e. _____Time to
Target_________________________________________________

f. _____Coordinated
Illumination_________________________________________

g. _____Continuous
Illumination__________________________________________

h. _____Cease
Loading_________________________________________________

i. _____Check
Fire____________________________________________________

j. _____Continuous
Fire________________________________________________

k. _____Repeat________________________________________________
_______

l. _____Request
Splash________________________________________________

m. _____Do Not
Load___________________________________________________

n. _____Duration_______________________________________________
_______
100. If the observer wishes to control the time of delivery of fire, which method of
control would the observer utilize?

a. At My Command
b. Fire When Ready
c. Repeat
d. Mark

101. Which method of control indicates the observer cannot see the target due to
weather, terrain, vegetation, intensity of the conflict, or smoke?

a. Unobserved
b. Lost
c. Lost Line of Sight
d. Cannot Observe

102. Which method of control would an observer use to specify the specific time
rounds impact on the target?

a. Time on Target
b. Time to Target
c. Request Time
d. Duration

103. Which method of control would an observer use to specify the time, in minutes
and seconds post hack statement, rounds impact on the target?

a. Time on Target
b. Time to Target
c. Request Time
d. Duration

104. True / False: The FDC announces SPLASH to the observer 5 seconds prior to
round impact.

a. True
b. False

105. What method of control would an observer utilize if they wished to tell the FDC
the total time to engage a target?

a. Time on target
b. Duration
c. Time
d. Interval
106. What four items does the MTO consist of?
a. _____Unit(s) to
Fire__________________________________________________

b. _____Change to Call for

Fire__________________________________________

c. _____Number of
Rounds______________________________________________

d. _____Target
Number_________________________________________________

107. Select all that apply: What additional information can be sent separately or along
with the MTO?

a. Probable Error in Range

b. Angle T
c. PRF Code
d. Time of Flight

108. What are the 9 lines for the 9-Line CAS Brief?

a. _____Line 1 – Ingress Point (IP) or Battle Position

(BP)______________________

b. _____Line 2 – Heading and

Offset______________________________________

c. _____Line 3 –
Distance_______________________________________________

d. _____Line 4 – Target
Elevation_________________________________________

e. _____Line 5 – Target
Description_______________________________________

f. _____Line 6 – Target
Location_________________________________________

g. _____Line 7 – Mark Type and Terminal

Guidance__________________________

h. _____Line 8 –
Friendlies______________________________________________

i. _____Line 9 –
Egress________________________________________________
109. What are the 5 lines for the Army attack aviation RW 5-Line Request?

a. _____Line 1 – Observer and Warning

Order_______________________________

b. _____Line 2 – Friendly Location and

Mark________________________________

c. _____Line 3 – Target
Location_________________________________________

d. _____Line 4 – Target Description and

Mark_______________________________

e. _____Line 5 –
Remarks_______________________________________________

110. How many transmissions are transmitted to the ship for the NSFS call for fire?

a. Three Transmissions
b. Five Transmissions
c. One Transmission
d. Two Transmissions

111. What FDC command will the FO receive after sending a CFF as “DNL” or after
establishing a priority target?

a. Ready
b. Laid
c. In Position Ready to Fire
d. Aimed On

112. What FDC command will the FO receive after sending a CFF as “At My
Command” or “By Round, At My Command”?

a. Ready
b. Laid
c. In Position Ready to Fire
d. Aimed On

113. What FDC command is used to signify the number of rounds specified in the fire
for effect has been fired?

a. Splash
b. Shot
c. Rounds Complete
d. End of Mission
114. _____ is the observer's determination of the location of the burst, or the mean
point of impact of a group of bursts, with respect to the adjusting point as observed along
the observer-target line.

a. Spotting
b. Correction
c. Impact
d. Adjusting point

115. True / False: The sequence of spottings is height of burst, range, and deviation.

a. True
b. False

116. What are the five HOB spottings and what do they mean?

a. _____Air___________________________________________________
________

b. _____Graze________________________________________________
________

c. _____Mixed_________________________________________________
_______

d. _____Mixed
Air_____________________________________________________

e. _____Mixed
Graze___________________________________________________
117. What are the eight range spottings?

a. _____Over_________________________________________________
________

b. _____Short_________________________________________________
_______

c. _____Target________________________________________________
________

d. _____Range
Correct_________________________________________________

e. _____Doubtful_______________________________________________
_______

f. _____Lost__________________________________________________
_______

g. _____Unobserved____________________________________________
_______

h. _____Unobserved Over or
Short________________________________________

118. As an FO calling for fire you observe a round impact beyond the adjusting point.
What range spotting would that be?

a. Target
b. Air
c. Doubtful
d. Over

119. During the impact portion of a registration you spot a round that impacts on the
registration point. What range spotting would that be?

a. Range Correct
b. Target
c. Mixed
d. Spot On
120. While executing a CFF you receive a Splash call for AA1020. After waiting 5
seconds for the impact you neither see nor hear the round impact. What spotting would
you make?

a. Doubtful
b. Unobserved
c. Lost
d. Cannot Observe

121. While executing a CFF you receive a Splash call for AA1025. After waiting 5
seconds for the impact you aren’t able to visually acquire the impact, but you hear it but
you’re unable to make out if it’s over or short. What spotting would you make?

a. Doubtful
b. Unobserved
c. Lost
d. Cannot Observe

122. What are the three deviation spottings?

a. _____Line__________________________________________________
_______

b. _____Left__________________________________________________
________

c. _____Right_________________________________________________
________

123. True / False: A spotting of “LINE” is a round that impacts on line with the
adjusting point as seen by the observer (on the observer-target line).

a. True
b. False

124. As an observer on the hill, you spot a round to the right of the observer-target
line. Using your binoculars you measure the angular deviation to be 40 mils to the right.
How would you record your spotting of the round?

a. Left 40
b. Depends on OT Factor
c. Right 40
d. 40 Right
125. What are the 15 subsequent corrections in sequence (in order)?

a. _____Observer Target
Direction________________________________________

b. _____Danger Close and Cancel Danger

Close_____________________________

c. _____Trajectory_____________________________________________
________

d. _____Method of
Fire_________________________________________________

e. _____Distribution____________________________________________
________

f. _____Projectile______________________________________________
_______

g. _____Fuze_________________________________________________
________

h. _____Volume_______________________________________________
________

i. _____Deviation______________________________________________
_______

j. _____Range________________________________________________
_______

k. _____Height of
Burst_________________________________________________

l. _____Target
Description______________________________________________

m. _____Mission Type and Method of

Control________________________________

n. _____Splash________________________________________________
_______

o. _____Repeat________________________________________________
_______
126. Send the observer-target direction if it has not been sent previously or if the
observer-target direction changes by more than _____ from the previously announced
direction.

a. 10 mils
b. 50 mils
c. 20 mils
d. 100 mils

127. What correction do you need to send before a control correction during an
immediate suppression or when attacking a new target without sending a new call for fire?

a. Altitude
b. Target description
c. Number of rounds
d. Repeat

128. What are the four adjustment techniques used to conduct area adjustment fires?

a. _____Successive
Bracketing___________________________________________

b. _____Hasty
Bracketing_______________________________________________

c. _____One Round
Adjustment__________________________________________

d. _____Creeping
Fire__________________________________________________

129. Which adjustment technique mathematically ensures FFE rounds will be within
50 meters of the target?

a. Creeping Fire
b. One Round Adjustment
c. Precision Fire
d. Successive Bracketing

130. Which adjustment technique is best when responsive fires are required, and the
observer is experienced in the adjustment of fire?

a. Creeping Fire
b. One Round Adjustment
c. Hasty Bracketing
d. Successive Bracketing
131. You’re an observer on the hill and you identify an enemy approximately 500
meters from your position. You announce DANGER CLOSE in your method of
engagement. While adjusting your rounds, which adjustment technique is best suited for
your situation?

a. Creeping Fire
b. One Round Adjustment
c. Hasty Bracketing
d. Successive Bracketing

132. Normally, the observer using successive bracketing requests FFE once the
_____ meter bracket is split. Under certain conditions when the PER of the weapon is
_____ meters or larger, an observer is justified in calling for FFE when a _____ meter
bracket is split.

a. 50, 38, 100

b. 100, 25, 200
c. 50, 25, 100
d. 100, 38, 200

133. How is a registration initiated?

a. With a message to observer.

b. H18 this is H44, adjust fire, over.
c. H18 this is H44, registration, over.
d. With a courtesy call.

134. The objective of an impact registration is to get spottings of _____ along the
observer-target line from rounds fired with the same data or from rounds fired with data 25
meters apart.

a. 2 rounds (1 over and 1 short)

b. 2 rounds (target hit or range correct)
c. 4 rounds (target hit or range correct)
d. 4 rounds (2 over and 2 short)

135. True / False: If PER is greater than or equal to 25 meters the objective of impact
registration is to get spottings of four rounds (two over and two short) along the observer-
target line from rounds fired with the same data or from rounds fired with data 50 meters
apart.

a. True
b. False
136. While conducting a registration you spot a round target or range correct. What
does that round provide a spotting as?

a. Both over and short

b. Target
c. Line
d. Accurate and sufficient

137. During an impact registration the observer spots the rounds for deviation to the
nearest one mil and brings the rounds onto the observer-target line before _____.

a. Splitting a 400 meter bracket

b. Adding or dropping
c. Splitting a 200 meter bracket
d. Corrections are made

138. During an impact registration when the 50 meter range bracket has been
established, how many round(s) are fired with data 25 meters in the direction opposite that
of the last range spotting?

a. 1
b. 2
c. 4
d. FFE

139. During an impact registration, if the registration point is nearer the last round(s)
fired, what is the range refinement necessary to move the impact toward the registration
point?

a. Add or Drop 10
b. Add or Drop 25
c. No Range Refinement is Necessary
d. Add or Drop 20

140. If the registration point is equidistant between the two sets of rounds, what does
the observer determine the range refinement to be from the last data fired?

a. Add or Drop 10
b. Add or Drop 25
c. No Range Refinement is Necessary
d. Add or Drop 20
141. If the registration point is nearer the pair of rounds at the opposite end of the
bracket, what does the observer determine the range refinement to be?

a. Add or Drop 10
b. Add or Drop 25
c. No Range Refinement is Necessary
d. Add or Drop 20

142. What form would an observer use to keep track of the rounds and spottings in
relation to the registration point?

a. DA 5429
b. DA 4187
c. DA 2185
d. Shell Report

143. In registration, deviation refinement is determined by adding the deviation

spottings of the rounds establishing the two over and two short (this may include two,
three, or four deviation spottings). Then _____ the total of the deviation spottings by the
number of rounds (two, three, or four) to get an average deviation. Express the result to
the nearest mil. The average deviation multiplied by the observer-target factor equals the
correction, which the observer expresses to the nearest _____.

a. Multiply, 10 mils
b. Divide, 10 meters
c. Subtract, 1 meter
d. Add, 1 mil

144. Using the following information, what should the observer send to the FDC as
their deviation refinement for a registration? OT Factor of 2; Spottings of +7R, +15R, -5L,
and +3R.

a. Left 20
b. Right 20
c. Right 10
d. Left 10

145. Mortar registration procedures are identical to the impact registration procedures
for artillery. The exception is that once a _____ meter range bracket has been split and the
last round fired is within _____ meters of the target, the observer sends refinement
corrections to the FDC and ends the mission. Make range corrections to the nearest 25
meters. Only _____ round over and _____ round short are required.

a. 50, 25, 2, 2
b. 100, 50, 2, 2
c. 50, 25, 1, 1
d. 100, 50, 1, 1
146. What is the additional step that is not required for artillery but may be required for
mortars during a registration?

a. Adjust the Sheaf

b. Time Registration
c. Adjust the FPF
d. ToT Registration

147. When adjusting the sheaf for mortars during a registration, what does the
observer base the determination for the method of fire on?

a. Vegetation
b. Wind Direction
c. Hydrography
d. Cloud Coverage

148. When adjusting the sheaf for mortars during a registration, how is the sheaf
adjusted?

a. On line with a 40 meter lateral spread, perpendicular to the observer-

target line.
b. On line with a 50 meter lateral spread, perpendicular to the gun-target
line.
c. On line with a 75 meter lateral spread, perpendicular to the observer-
target line.
d. On line with a 40 meter lateral spread, perpendicular to the gun-target
line.

149. What is the objective of the time portion of the precision registration?

a. 4 rounds fired with the same data 20 meters above the registration point.
b. 2 rounds fired with the same data 20 meters above the registration point.
c. 4 rounds fired with the same data 40 meters above the registration point.
d. 2 rounds fired with the same data 40 meters above the registration point.

150. What is the automatic HOB correction for the time portion of the precision
registration if the first round is spotted as a graze burst?

a. Up 20
b. Up 40
c. Down 20
d. Down 40
151. During the time portion of the precision registration, once the observer achieves
a measurable airburst, what is the command given?

a. Repeat
b. 2 Rounds Repeat
c. 3 Rounds Repeat
d. 4 Rounds Repeat

152. During the time portion of the precision registration, when three airbursts and one
graze burst is spotted what is the HOB correction?

a. No correction is required.
b. Up 10
c. Up 20
d. Up 40

153. During the time portion of the precision registration, when two airbursts and two
graze bursts are spotted what is the HOB correction?

a. No correction is required.
b. Up 10
c. Up 20
d. Up 40

154. During the time portion of the precision registration, when one airburst and three
graze bursts are spotted what is the HOB correction?

a. No correction is required.
b. Up 10
c. Up 20
d. Up 40

155. In the event an Excalibur projectile does not acquire adequate GPS signal, or
experiences a reliability failure in flight, the round is designed to _____.

a. Continue its flight path to the target un-armed and impact as a dud.
b. Continue to target as a non-PGM and function as a standard HE round.
c. Continue its trajectory to the ballistic impact point without arming and
dud.
d. Continue its trajectory to the ballistic impact point and function as a
standard HE round.
156. For Excalibur calls for fire, what is the minimum the grid locations will be
expressed to?

a. 10 digits
b. 12 digits
c. 8 digits
d. 6 digits

157. What must the observer specify in the target location portion of an Excalibur
CFF?

a. TLE
b. CEP
c. PER
d. None of the Above

158. What munition is available to utilize with the 120mm mortar that minimizes
collateral damage and reduces the number of rounds required to create the desired effects
on the target?

a. XM 982
b. APKWS
c. APMI
d. Copperhead

159. What fuze can be added to 155mm Artillery M795 HE and M549A1 HERA rounds
to increase precision?

a. APKWS
b. Excalibur
c. PGK
d. APMI

160. How many sub munitions are in the M449 family of APICMs?

a. 60
b. 88
c. 72
d. 42

161. How many sub munitions are in the M4831A1 DPICM?

a. 60
b. 88
c. 72
d. 42
162. How many sub munitions are in the M864 DPICM?

a. 60
b. 88
c. 72
d. 42

163. Which of the following options is NOT a use of illumination?

a. Illuminate areas of suspected adversary activity.

b. Provide illumination for night adjustment of fires.
c. Mark friendly location for CAS attacks.
d. Harass adversary positions.

164. What is the initial height of burst in meters for the M485A2 illumination round?

a. 600
b. 500
c. 550
d. 750

165. What is the rate of descent for M485A2 illumination rounds?

a. 8 meters per second

b. 5 meters per second
c. 10 meters per second
d. 6 meters per second

166. What is the initial height of burst for all 105mm illumination rounds?

a. 600
b. 500
c. 550
d. 750

167. What is the initial height of burst for all 120mm illumination rounds?

a. 600
b. 500
c. 550
d. 750
168. Which illumination pattern would you use when an area requires more
illumination than can be furnished by one gun illumination?

a. Two Gun Illumination Range Spread

b. Two Gun Illumination
c. Multi-Gun Illumination
d. Two Gun Illumination

169. Which illumination pattern is fired perpendicular to the observer target line?

a. Two Gun Illumination Range Spread

b. Two Gun Illumination Lateral Spread
c. Multi-Gun Illumination
d. Two Gun Illumination

170. Which illumination pattern would you use to illuminate an area with practically no
shadows or dark spots?.

a. Two Gun Illumination

b. Illumination Lateral Spread
c. Illumination OTL and GTL Spread
d. Four Gun Illumination Pattern

171. What is the minimum deviation or range correction made while adjusting
illumination?

a. 100
b. 50
c. 30
d. 200

172. When adjusting illumination rounds, what are HOB corrections sent in multiples
of?

a. 5 meters
b. 50 meters
c. 100 meters
d. 10 meters

173. During an illumination mission, if the flare burns out 60 mils above the ground
and the OT factor is 2, what correction should the Observer send for HOB?

a. Down 150
b. Down 120
c. Down 100
d. Down 50
174. During an illumination mission your round burns on the ground for 13 seconds.
You are observing 155mm M485A2 illumination rounds and the rate of decent is 5 meters
per second. What is your HOB correction?

a. Up 100
b. Up 50
c. No refinement
d. Up 150

175. True / False: The four types of smoke are obscuring, marking, incendiary, and
deception.

a. True
b. False

176. Which type of smoke is a smoke curtain used on the battlefield between threat
observation points and friendly units to mask friendly forces, positions, and activities?

a. Signaling smoke
b. Obscuring smoke
c. Screening smoke
d. Signaling smoke

177. Which type of smoke is placed on or near the threat to suppress threat observers
and to minimize their vision?

a. Deception smoke
b. Obscuring smoke
c. Screening smoke
d. Masking smoke

178. Which range of wind speed is best for the production of smoke screens?

a. 4 to 14 knots
b. 0 to 20 knots
c. 4 to 20 knots
d. 0 to 14 knots

179. How wide, in meters, would you use a quick smoke mission to obscure areas?

a. 600 to 1500
b. 150 to 500
c. 600 to 1000
d. 150 to 600
180. True / False: A quick smoke mission requires the observer to send length,
maneuver target line, wind direction, and duration in the call for fire.

a. True
b. False

181. During a quick smoke CFF using shell smoke (HC) you use HE in adjustment
until which bracket is split?

a. 100
b. 200
c. 400
d. 50

182. What is the minimum deviation correction for smoke?

a. 20 meters
b. 30 meters
c. 40 meters
d. 50 meters

183. What is the minimum range correction for smoke?

a. 50 meters
b. 100 meters
c. 200 meters
d. 400 meters

184. Final protective fires may be any distance from the friendly position but is
normally within _____ to _____ meters (danger close) of friendly positions.

a. 200 to 400
b. 200 to 600
c. 400 to 600
d. 100 to 400

185. True / False: Once a target number is assigned, the observer should begin each
correction with the observer identification, followed by the target number, and ending with
the desired correction.

a. True
b. False
186. How far away from the target should an auxiliary adjusting point be?

a. 700 meters
b. 450 meters
c. 600 meters
d. 500 meters

187. Linear and rectangular targets require orientation in terms of direction. The
observer must send target description, length, width, and what else in the third
transmission of the call for fire?

a. Direction
b. Elevation
c. Attitude
d. Radius

188. Attitude is sent to the nearest how many mils?

a. 1 mil
b. 10 mils
c. 20 mils
d. 100 mils
ATP 3-09.32 JFIRE

189. Which naval surface fire support (NSFS) brevity term is used for a nonscheduled fire
mission report?

a. Honey
b. Pepper
c. Pickle
d. Candy

190. Which naval surface fire support (NSFS) brevity term is used for a new target report?

a. Honey
b. GURF
c. Pickle
d. Candy

191. Which naval surface fire support (NSFS) brevity term is used for an unfired target
report?

a. Honey
b. GURF
c. Pickle
d. Candy

192. Which naval surface fire support (NSFS) brevity term is used for an ammunition
remaining report?

a. Honey
b. GURF
c. Pickle
d. Candy

193. Which naval surface fire support (NSFS) brevity term is used that summarizes naval
gunfire support (NGFS) capability when unknown to an NGFS station?

a. Honey
b. GURF
c. Pickle
d. Candy

194. What additional information is sent along with the warning order in the first transmission
of the naval surface fire support (NSFS) call for fire?
a. GURF
b. Description
c. Target Number
d. Method of Control

195. What is the maximum range, in meters, of the M777 series 155mm howitzer w/M232?

a. 18200
b. 37500
c. 22500
d. 21700

196. What is the maximum range, in meters, of the M224/M224A1 60mm mortar?

a. 3500
b. 3489
c. 3600
d. 3689

197. What is the maximum range, in meters, of the M252/M252A1 81mm mortar?

a. 5800
b. 4800
c. 4600
d. 5400

198. What is the maximum range, in meters, of the M120/M120A1 120mm mortar using the
M929 WP round?

a. 5800
b. 7200
c. 7400
d. 7120

199. What is the maximum range, in meters, of the M982 Excalibur projectile?

a. 44,000
b. 24,500
c. 22,200
d. 37,500

200. What are the 12 steps of the CAS execution template?

a. _____Routing and Safety of
Flight_______________________________________

b. _____CAS Aircraft Check

In___________________________________________

c. _____Situation
Update_______________________________________________

d. _____Game
Plan____________________________________________________

e. _____CAS
Brief_____________________________________________________

f. _____Remarks and
Restrictions________________________________________

g. _____Readbacks____________________________________________
________

h. _____Correlation_____________________________________________
_______

i. _____Attack________________________________________________
________

j. _____Assess
Effects_________________________________________________

k. _____Battle Damage
Assessment_______________________________________

l. _____Routing and Safety of

Flight_______________________________________

201. What does each letter of the situation update stand for when using TEFACHR?
a. T-
_____Threat_____________________________________________________
_

b. E-_____Enemy
Situation______________________________________________

c. F-_____Friendly
Update______________________________________________

d. A-
_____Artillery____________________________________________________
_

e. C-_____Clearance
Authority___________________________________________

f. H-
_____Hazards___________________________________________________
_

g. R-_____Remarks and
Restrictions______________________________________

202. The BDA report for a CAS engagement should include size, activity, location, time, and
remarks (SALTR). If conditions preclude briefing full BDA, at a minimum what do you pass?

a. Good effects, damage, and time

b. Good bombs, no need for re-attack
c. End of mission
d. Successful, unsuccessful, or unknown

203. What can JTACs and FAC(A)s use to develop and correlate targeting data, mark targets,
and provide terminal guidance operations?

a. LLDRs
b. Digitally aided CAS
c. Ground burst illumination
d. JFOs

204. What is line 8 of the JFO target brief?

a. Mark type
b. Location of friendlies
c. Target location
d. Egress

205. True / False: After receiving the army attack aviation call for fire from the ground forces,
the aircrews are not required to identify the location of the friendly element and the target prior
to conducting an engagement.

a. True
b. False

206. True / False: Army Attack Aviation and Special Operations Forces (SOF) gunship use
the same call for fire format.

a. True
b. False

207. How would an observer maintain positive control of the SOF Gunship or Army Attack
Aviation during an engagement?

a. State “I am not a JTAC”

b. State “Do Not Load”
c. State “Check Fire”
d. State “At My Command”

208. True / False: Clearance to fire is the transmission of the Aviation/SOF gunship call for
fire unless “at my command” or “danger close” has been stated.

a. True
b. False

209. If “danger close” has been announced in an Aviation/SOF gunship call for fire what else
must be passed to the attacking aircraft?

a. Grid to Nearest Friendlies

b. Ground Commander’s Risk Assessment
c. Ground Commander’s Initials
d. At My Command

210. Do Army Attack Aviation or AC-130 engagements require terminal attack control?

a. No
b. No, unless a CAS 9-Line is passed.
c. Yes
d. Yes, unless prior coordination was executed.

211. When executing CAS without a JTAC or FAC(A) qualified individual, what must you
advise the aircrew?

a. _____”I am not a JTAC” or “I am a

JFO”__________________________________

212. Select all that apply: What methods can be used to integrate and deconflict aircraft and
surface fires?

a. Lateral Separation
b. Altitude
c. Time
d. Massing

213. When is a gun-target line considered hot?

a. Once the gun reports laid.

b. Once the FDC receives the CFF.
c. Once the firing unit is actively firing.
d. Once you pass the GTL in the Remarks/Restrictions.

214. Which of these fixed wing aircraft is equipped with 30mm, 105mm, and small diameter
bombs?

a. F-16
b. B-1B
c. F/A-18
d. AC-130J

215. Which of these fixed wing aircraft can be equipped with 20mm, 2.75-inch rockets, AGM-
65, HARM, and SDBs?

a. B-52
b. F-16
c. F-15E
d. F-35

216. True / False: The AH-64 is equipped with 30mm, 2.75-inch rockets, and Hellfires.

a. True
b. False
217. What UAS can be equipped with GBU and Hellfire ordnances?

a. MQ-1C
b. MQ-9
c. MQ-5B
d. Predator

218. What brevity term means to discontinue stated activity?

a. Stop
b. Halt
c. Discontinue
d. Cease

219. What brevity term would you use to begin using briefed communication procedures to
counter communications jamming?

a. Chattermark
b. Soiled
c. Net Call
d. Tampered

220. What brevity term is a call to inbound aircraft that the LZ, HLZ, or DZ has enemy activity
above the prebriefed risk tolerance?

a. Ice
b. Cherry
c. Hot
d. Chili

221. What brevity term is a call to inbound aircraft that the LZ, HLZ, or DZ has enemy activity
below the prebriefed risk tolerance?

a. Ice
b. Cherry
c. Hot
d. Chili

222. What brevity term means sighting of a FRIENDLY aircraft or ground position?

a. Contact
b. Spot
c. Eyes on
d. Visual
223. What brevity term acknowledges sighting a specified reference point (either visually or
via sensor)?

a. Visual
b. Spot
c. Contact
d. Joy

224. What brevity term means sighting a target, non-friendly aircraft, or enemy position?

a. Tally
b. Contact
c. Bogey
d. Squirter

225. What brevity term means acquisition of laser designation, or the platform is laser spot
tracker (LST) capable?

a. Capture
b. Spot
c. Contact
d. Acquire

226. What brevity term means the laser designator system is inoperative?

a. Dead eye
b. Blind
c. No joy
d. Terminated

227. What brevity term means mark or marking a target by infrared (IR) pointer?

a. Snake
b. Pulse
c. Lasing
d. Sparkle

228. What brevity term means oscillate an IR pointer in a figure eight about a target?

a. Pulse
b. Snake
c. Sparkle
d. Rope
229. What brevity term means an object has been acquired and is being tracked with an
onboard sensor?

a. Track
b. Captured
c. Spot
d. Contact

230. What brevity term means FRIENDLY air-to-surface missile launch?

a. One away
b. Remington
c. Rifle
d. Winchester

231. What brevity term means no ordnance remaining?

a. Remington
b. Winchester
c. Rifle
d. Browning

232. _____ is the unintentional or incidental injury or damage to persons or objects that are
not lawful military targets in the circumstances ruling at the time.

a. Fratricide
b. Collateral damage
c. Error probability
d. Retrograde

233. True / False: For air-to-surface weapons JTACs, aircrew, and commanders will refer to
the standing posture column of the REDs to determine when DANGER CLOSE procedures
apply, regardless of friendly force posture.

a. True
b. False

FM 3-09 Fire Support and Field Artillery Operations

234. A _____ is a target whose loss to the enemy will significantly contribute to the success of
the friendly course of action.
a. High-Value Target
b. High-Value Individual
c. High-Payoff Target
d. High-Yield Target

235. The role of the Field Artillery is to _____ the enemy by cannon, rocket, and missile fire
and to integrate and synchronize all fire support assets into operations.

a. Suppress, Neutralize, or Destroy

b. Destroy, Deter, or Defeat
c. Disrupt, Defeat, or Destroy
d. Destroy, Deny, or Disrupt

236. What are the two Field Artillery core competencies provided to Army operations?

a. Provide Timely and Accurate Fires and to Eliminate Threats on the

Battlefield
b. Mass Fires and Balance the Army Ethic
c. Coordinate Fire Support and to Deliver Indirect Fire
d. Coordinate Joint Fires and to Combine Multinational Assets

237. The _____ is the senior field artillery commander for the theater, corps, division, brigade
combat team who is the maneuver commander’s primary advisor to plan, coordinate, and
integrate field artillery and fire support in the execution of assigned tasks.

a. Chief of Fires
b. Fire Support Commandant
c. Fire Support Officer
d. Fire Support Coordinator

238. What are the four Fire Support functions?

a. Command and Control, Target Acquisition, Attack Systems, and Delivery

Systems
b. Support Forces in Contact, Support the Concept of Operations,
Synchronize and Converge FS Across All Domains, and Sustain and Protect
the FS System
c. Destroy Adversaries, Eliminate Threats, Protect the Force, and Provide
Accurate and Timely Fire Support
d. Violently Apply Lethal Fires, Operate In the Spirit of the Offense, Operate
as a Single Entity, and Act in Accordance with the Law of War

239. Who is the fire support representative for the maneuver platoon?

a. Fire Support Team

b. Fire Support Element
c. Fires and Effects Coordination Center
d. Forward Observer

240. What is a tactical plan for using the weapons of a unit or formation so that their fire will
be coordinated?

a. Scheme of Maneuver
b. Fire Plan
c. Annex D
d. Offensive Plan

241. The _____ is a specialized, regionally focused Army element that serves as the senior
Army operational commander’s liaison with the air component. A _____ is co-located with the
joint or combined AOC.

a. Ground Liaison Detachment

b. Battlefield Coordination Detachment
c. Fires and Effects Coordination Cell
d. Joint Fires Cell

242. The _____ is an air liaison unit co-located with ground maneuver units. _____s are
under the operational control of the ASOC and have two primary missions: to advise ground
commanders on the capabilities and limitations of air operations (the responsibility of the air
liaison officer [ALO]) and provide terminal attack control of CAS aircraft (the responsibility of the
JTACs).

a. JFO
b. TACP
c. JTAC
d. TACE

243. What is the detection, identification, and location of a target in sufficient detail to permit
effective employment of capabilities that create the required effects?

a. Target Acquisition
b. The Targeting Process
c. Attack Guidance
d. Target Exploitation
244. What are actions executed to deliberately mislead adversary military, paramilitary, or
violent extremist organization decision makers, thereby causing the adversary to take specific
actions (or inactions) that will contribute to the accomplishment of the friendly mission?

a. Military Defeat
b. Military Deception
c. Military Delay
d. Military Destroy

245. Army _____ operations are designed to support operational and tactical plans by
protecting Army aviation assets near the forward line of own troops (FLOT) or during cross-
FLOT operations. _____ also includes the protection of Air Force aircraft (such as CAS aircraft)
supporting the ground commander’s operation.

a. Immediate Suppression
b. Destruction Mission
c. Suppression of Enemy Air Defense
d. Offensive Task

246. _____ is the specific targeting of enemy indirect fire systems including their command
and control, sensors, platforms, and logistics before they engage friendly forces.

a. Counterfire
b. Reactive Counterfire
c. Proactive Counterfire
d. Deliberate Counterfire

247. _____ provides immediate indirect and joint fires to neutralize, destroy, and suppress
enemy indirect fire weapons once acquired.

a. SEAD Mission
b. Reactive Counterfire
c. Immediate Suppression
d. Proactive Counterfire

248. What task/effect is to render a force incapable of achieving its objectives?

a. Defeat
b. Deceive
c. Delay
d. Destroy
249. What task/effect is when a force under pressure trades space for time by slowing down
the enemy’s momentum and inflicting maximum damage on enemy forces without becoming
decisively engaged?

a. Suppress
b. Defeat
c. Deceive
d. Delay

250. What task/effect is a tactical mission task that physically renders an enemy force
combat-ineffective until it is reconstituted?

a. Destroy
b. Defeat
c. Deceive
d. Neutralize

251. What task/effect is a tactical mission task in which a commander integrates direct and
indirect fires, terrain, and obstacles to upset an enemy’s formation or tempo, interrupt the
enemy’s timetable, or cause enemy forces to commit prematurely or attack in a piecemeal
fashion?

a. Divert
b. Disrupt
c. Defeat
d. Deceive

252. What task/effect is the act of drawing the attention and forces of an enemy from the point
of the principal operation; an attack, alarm, or feint that diverts attention?

a. Diversion
b. Deceive
c. Defeat
d. Delay

253. What task/effect is a tactical mission task that results in rendering enemy personnel or
materiel incapable of interfering with a particular operation?

a. Delay
b. Neutralize
c. Disrupt
d. Suppress
254. _____ is a brief, intense bombardment on selected targets or a prolonged effort over
time covering a large number of targets.

a. Suppression Fire
b. Offensive Fire
c. Destruction Fire
d. Preparation Fire

255. What task/effect is a tactical mission task that results in temporary degradation of the
performance of a force or weapons system below the level needed to accomplish the mission?

a. Neutralize
b. Delay
c. Disrupt
d. Suppress

256. Field artillery contributes to unified land operations by _____ in space and time on single
or multiple targets with precision, near-precision, and area fire capabilities.

a. Massing Fire
b. Placing Indirect Fire
c. Denying Enemy
d. Converging Fires

257. _____ is the act of designing a force, support staff, or sustainment package of specific
size and composition to meet a unique task or mission.

a. Retrograde
b. Task-Organizing
c. Coordinating Fires
d. Mission-Organizing

258. What command relationship means to be assigned to and forming an essential part of a
military organization as listed in its table of organization for the Army, Air Force, and Marine
Corps, and are assigned to the operating forces for the Navy?

a. Assign
b. Task Organized
c. Operational
d. Organic
259. What command relationship means to place units or personnel in an organization where
such placement is relatively permanent, and/or where such organization controls and
administers the units or personnel for the primary function, or greater portion of the functions, of
the unit or personnel?

a. Assign
b. Organic
c. Attach
d. Task

260. What command relationship is the authority to perform those functions of command over
subordinate forces involving organizing and employing commands and forces, assigning tasks,
designating objectives, and giving authoritative direction necessary to accomplish the mission?

a. Tactical Control
b. Operational Control
c. Organizational Control
d. Positive Control

261. What command relationship is the authority over forces that is limited to the detailed
direction and control of movements or maneuvers within the operational area necessary to
accomplish missions or tasks assigned?

a. Positive Control
b. Operational Control
c. Organizational Control
d. Tactical Control

262. Which support relationship is a relationship requiring a force to support another specific
force and authorizing it to answer directly to the supported force’s request for assistance?

a. General Support
b. Operational Support
c. Reinforcing
d. Direct Support

263. Which support relationship is a relationship requiring a force to support another

supporting unit?

a. General Support-Reinforcing
b. Reinforcing
c. Indirect Support
d. General Support

264. Which support relationship is support which is given to the supported force as a whole
and not to any particular subdivision thereof?
a. General Support
b. General Support-Reinforcing
c. Direct Support
d. Close Support

265. Which support relationship is a relationship assigned to a unit to support the force as a
whole and to reinforce another similar-type unit?

a. General Support
b. General Support-Reinforcing
c. Direct Support
d. Close Support

266. A _____ is a munition that corrects for ballistic conditions using guidance and control up
to the aimpoint or submunitions dispense with terminal accuracy less than the lethal radius of
effects.

a. Heat Seeker
b. Cluster Munition
c. Precision Munition
d. Joint Fire Unit

267. The goal of any indirect firing unit is to achieve accurate _____ on a target.

a. Accurate and Sufficient Fires

b. Lasting Operational Effects
c. First-Round Fire for Effect
d. Fires that Support the Scheme of Maneuver

268. What is NOT a method for responsive fires?

a. Rehearsals
b. Planning Fire Support Requirements in Advance
c. Streamlining the Call for Fire by Shortening the Number of
Transmissions
d. Continually Training Observers in all Aspects of Fire Support

269. A _____ is an operation to defeat an enemy attack, gain time, economize forces, and
develop conditions favorable for offensive or stability operations.
a. Defensive Operation
b. Offensive Operation
c. Concept of Fires
d. Scheme of Maneuver

270. What is a type of defensive operation that concentrates on denying enemy forces access
to designated terrain for a specific time rather than destroying the enemy outright?

a. Terrain Denial
b. Specified Defense
c. Terrain Defense
d. Area Defense

271. What is a defensive operation that concentrates on the destruction or defeat of the
enemy through a decisive attack by a striking force?

a. Area Defense
b. Deception Defense
c. Mobile Defense
d. Mobile Strike

272. What is a type of defensive operation that involves organized movement away from the
enemy?

a. Retrograde
b. Retreat
c. Recession
d. Reconnoiter

273. What is a type of offensive operation designed to develop the situation and establish or
regain contact?

a. Preparation Fires
b. Deliberate Contact
c. Movement to Contact
d. Scheme of Maneuver

274. What is a type of offensive operation that destroys or defeats enemy forces, seizes and
secures terrain, or both?

a. Movement to Contact
b. Exploitation
c. Attack
d. Deliberate Attack

275. What is a type of offensive operation that usually follows a successful attack and is
designed to disorganize the enemy in depth?

a. Deep Fires
b. Attack
c. Disruption
d. Exploitation

276. What is a type of offensive operation designed to catch or cut off a hostile force
attempting to escape, with the aim of destroying it?

a. Exploitation
b. Neutralize
c. Movement to Contact
d. Pursuit

277. What type of operation orients on the force or facility being protected?

a. Passage of Lines
b. Security Operations
c. Signaling Operations
d. Force Protection

278. What is an operation in which a force moves forward or rearward through another force’s
combat positions with the intention of moving into or out of contact with the enemy?

a. Forward Passage of Lines

b. Movement to Contact
c. Position Exploitation
d. Passage of Lines

279. What is a synchronized combined arms activity under the control of the maneuver
commander conducted to allow maneuver through an obstacle?

a. Breach
b. Clear
c. Attack
d. Offense

280. A _____ is a criterion used to assess friendly actions that is tied to measuring task
accomplishment.

a. Collateral Damage Estimate

b. Measure of Performance
c. Effects Assessment
d. Measure of Effectiveness

281. A _____ is a criterion used to assess changes in system behavior, capability, or

operational environment that is tied to measuring the attainment of an end state, achievement of
an objective, or creation of an effect.

a. Assessment
b. Measure of Effectiveness
c. Measure of Performance
d. Patterns of Life

282. Permissive fire support coordination measures _____ the attack of targets. Fires must
be cleared with both terrain owners and other airspace users.

a. Restrictive
b. Redundant
c. Increase
d. Facilitate

283. A _____ is a line beyond which conventional surface-to-surface direct fire and indirect
fire support means may fire at any time within the boundaries of the establishing HQ without
additional coordination but does not eliminate the responsibility to coordinate the airspace
required to conduct the mission.

a. Fire Support Coordination Line

b. Coordinated Fire Line
c. Restrictive Fire Line
d. Boundary

284. A _____ is a fire support coordination measure established by the land or amphibious
force commander to support common objectives within an area of operation, beyond which all
fires must be coordinated with affected commanders prior to engagement, and short of the line,
all fires must be coordinated with the establishing commander prior to engagement.
a. Coordinated Fire Line
b. Free Fire Area
c. Fire Support Coordination Line
d. Phase Line

285. A _____ is a specific region into which any weapon system may fire without additional
coordination with the establishing HQ.

a. Restrictive Fire Area

b. Coordinated Fire Area
c. Coordinated Fire Line
d. Free Fire Area

286. A _____ is a three-dimensional permissive fire support coordination measure with an

associated airspace coordinating measure used to facilitate the integration of fires. A _____
facilitates the expeditious air-to-surface lethal attack of targets.

a. Kill Box
b. Airspace Coordination Area
c. Free Fire Area
d. No Fire Area

287. True / False: Restrictive fire support coordination measures are those that provide
safeguards for friendly forces and noncombatants, facilities, or terrain.

a. True
b. False

288. A _____ is an area designated by the appropriate commander into which fires or their
effects are prohibited.

a. No Fire Area
b. Free Fire Area
c. Restrictive Fire Area
d. Impact Area

289. A _____ is a location in which specific restrictions are imposed and into which fires that
exceed those restrictions will not be delivered without coordination with the establishing HQ.

a. Restricted Area
b. No Fire Area
c. Restrictive Fire Area
d. Restrictive Firing Line
290. A _____ is a specific boundary established between converging, friendly surface forces
that prohibits fires or their effects from crossing.

a. Restrictive Fire Line

b. Coordinated Fire Line
c. Phase Line
d. Boundary

291. A _____ is a line that delineates surface areas for the purpose of facilitating coordination
and deconfliction of operations between adjacent units, formations, or areas (JP 3-0).
_____(ies)(s) divide up areas of operation and define responsibility for clearance of fires.
_____(ies)(s) are both permissive and restrictive in nature.

a. Coordinated fire line

b. Phase line
c. Fire support coordination line
d. Boundary

292. A _____ is an area assigned to an artillery unit where individual artillery systems can
maneuver to increase their survivability.

a. Free Fire Area

b. Position Area for Artillery
c. Firing Point
d. Firing Area

293. Which radar zone is an area of coverage by weapons locating radar which the maneuver
commander designates as critical to the protection of an asset whose loss would seriously
jeopardize the mission?

a. Critical Friendly Zone

b. Censor Zone
c. Artillery Target Intelligence Zone
d. Call for Fire Zone

294. Which radar zone is a weapons locating radar search area from which the commander
wants to attack hostile firing systems?

a. Critical Friendly Zone

b. Censor Zone
c. Artillery Target Intelligence Zone
d. Call for Fire Zone
295. Which radar zone is a weapons locating radar search area in enemy territory that the
commander monitors closely to detect and report any weapon ahead of all acquisitions other
than those from critical friendly zones or call for fire zones?

a. Critical Friendly Zone

b. Censor Zone
c. Artillery Target Intelligence Zone
d. Call for Fire Zone

296. Which radar zone is an area from which radar is prohibited from reporting acquisitions
and that is normally placed around friendly weapon systems to prevent them from being
acquired by friendly radars?

a. Artillery Target Intelligence Zone

b. Call for Fire Zone
c. Critical Friendly Zone
d. Censor Zone

JP 3-09 Joint Fire Support

297. Who is responsible for all aspects of joint fires planning, prioritization, coordination,
execution, and assessment?

a. Joint Fire Support Officer

b. Joint Force Commander
c. Combined Forces Air Component Commander
d. Deputy Combined Forces Air Component Commander

298. What is a list of objects or entities characterized as protected from the effects of military
operations under international law and/or rules of engagement (ROE)?

a. No-Strike List
b. Restricted Target List
c. Fire Support Coordination Measures
d. Collateral Damage Estimate
299. What is a list of valid military targets that could be on the joint integrated prioritized target
list (JIPTL) that have restrictions placed upon their engagement by the JFC or directed by
higher authorities?

a. No-Strike List
b. Restricted Target List
c. High Payoff Target List
d. High Value Target List

300. What is the senior Marine air-ground task force (MAGTF) fire support organization and
assists the MAGTF commander in planning, coordination, execution, and assessment of
MAGTF fires and effects?

a. Fire Support Element (FSE)

b. Fires Element (FE)
c. Fires Cell (FC)
d. Fires and Effects Coordination Center (FECC)

301. The joint targeting cycle consists of how many phases?

a. 3
b. 5
c. 6
d. 4

302. What provides the process to prioritize targets, determine the appropriate fires and
which components will mission-plan and synchronize the execution of those fires, and
determine whether the resulting effects are sufficient to support the Joint Force Commander’s
objectives?

a. Targeting
b. Planning
c. MDMP
d. COA Development

303. What facilitates efficient use of airspace to accomplish air operations and fires and
simultaneously provide safeguards for friendly forces?

a. FSCMs
b. MCMs
c. NSLs
d. ACMs
304. What is characterizing detected objects in the operational environment to support
engagement decisions?

a. Positive Identification
b. Combat Identification
c. Friendly Force Tracking
d. Target Identification

305. What is an identification derived from observation and analysis of target characteristics,
including visual recognition; electronic warfare support (ES) systems; non-cooperative target
recognition techniques; identification, friend or foe systems; other physics-based identification
techniques; or human identity-based biometric data collection devices?

a. Positive Identification
b. Combat Identification
c. Friendly Force Tracking
d. Target Identification

306. What is the process of fixing, observing, and reporting the location and movement of
friendly forces?

a. Positive Identification
b. Combat Identification
c. Friendly Force Tracking
d. Target Identification

307. What branch is a Battlefield Coordination Line specific to?

a. Army
b. Navy
c. Air Force
d. Marine Corps

308. What measures do land, maritime, and amphibious commanders use to define lines of
responsibility in support of movement and maneuver of friendly forces?

a. FSCMs
b. MCMs
c. NSLs
d. ACMs

309. What is a maneuver control measure used by land forces for control and coordination of
military operations?

a. Phase Line
b. Fire Support Area
c. Boundary
d. Fire Support Station

310. What maneuver control measure is an appropriate maneuver area assigned by the
maritime commander to fire support ships, from which they deliver surface joint fire support to
an operation ashore?

a. Phase Line
b. Fire Support Area
c. Boundary
d. Fire Support Station

311. What is an exact location at sea from which a fire support ship delivers fires?

a. Phase Line
b. Fire Support Area
c. Boundary
d. Fire Support Station

JP 3-09.3 Joint Close Air Support

312. What is CAS augmented by machine-to-machine exchange of situational awareness

(SA) and targeting messages that can include CAS briefs; friendly, threat, and target locations;
battle damage assessment (BDA);clearance of fires; and command and control (C2)?

a. DACAS
b. TGO
c. ECAS
d. XCAS

313. Which entity within the Theater Air Control System (TACS) allocates resources and
tasks forces through the air tasking order (ATO)?

a. Wing Operations Center (WOC)

b. Control and Reporting Center (CRC)
c. Air Operations Center (AOC)
d. Air Support Operations Center (ASOC)
314. Which entity within the Theater Air Control System (TACS) processes include handling
immediate air support requests, coordinating the execution of scheduled and on-call CAS
sorties, and coordinating manned/unmanned aircraft transiting through the assigned airspace?

a. Wing Operations Center (WOC)

b. Control and Reporting Center (CRC)
c. Air Operations Center (AOC)
d. Air Support Operations Center (ASOC)

315. Which entity within the Army Air-Ground System (AAGS) is an Army liaison provided by
the Army component or force commander to the COMAFFOR for duties with the air operations
center (AOC) or to the joint force air component commander (JFACC) for duties in the joint air
operations center (JAOC) based on the scenario?

a. Fire Support Team (FIST)

b. Battlefield Coordination Detachment (BCD)
c. Army Aviation Liaison
d. Airspace Elements

316. Which entity within the Marine Corps Command and Control System (MACCS) is the
senior agency?

a. Navy Tactical Air Control Center (TACC)

b. Aviation Combat Element (ACE)
c. Marine Tactical Air Control Center (TACC)
d. Tactical Air Operations Center (TAOC)

317. Which entity within the Special Operations Air-Ground System (SOAGS) is typically
located with the joint fires element at the joint special operations task force (JSOTF)?

a. Joint Air Coordination Element (JACE)

b. Special Operations Liaison Element (SOLE)
c. Special Operations C2 Element
d. Joint Terminal Attack Controller (JTAC)

318. What is the link between the air support operations center (ASOC) and subordinate
tactical air control parties (TACP) for aircraft coordination and sending immediate air support
requests?

a. Tactical Air Direction (TAD) Net

b. Joint Air Request Net (JARN)
c. Air Control Net
d. Guard Net

319. What net provides a means for the control of aircraft?

a. Tactical Air Direction (TAD) Net

b. Joint Air Request Net (JARN)
c. Air Control Net
d. Guard Net

320. What term is used by a joint terminal attack controller (JTAC)/forward air controller
(airborne) (FAC(A)) during a Type 1 and 2 control when granting weapons release clearance to
an aircraft attacking a specific target?

a. Abort
b. Cleared to Engage
c. Cleared Hot
d. Continue

321. What term is used by a joint terminal attack controller (JTAC)/forward air controller
(airborne) (FAC(A)) during all types of control to authorize the aircraft to proceed with the attack
profile, but weapons release is not granted yet?

a. Abort
b. Cleared to Engage
c. Cleared Hot
d. Continue

322. What term is used by a joint terminal attack controller (JTAC)/forward air controller
(airborne) (FAC(A)) during Type 3 control granting weapons release clearance to an aircraft or
flight to attack a target or targets within the parameters prescribed by the JTAC/FAC(A)?

a. Abort
b. Cleared to Engage
c. Cleared Hot
d. Continue

323. What are the two methods of attack for close air support (CAS)?

a. Bomb on Target (BOT) and Bomb on Coordinate (BOC)

b. Bomb on Time (BOT) and Bomb on Coordinate (BOC)
c. Bomb on Target (BOT) and Bomb on Correlation (BOC)
d. Bomb on Threat (BOT) and Bomb on Coordinate (BOC)
324. When will the joint terminal attack controller (JTAC)/forward air controller (airborne)
(FAC(A)) state the method of attack?

a. In the remarks and restrictions.

b. In the game plan prior to the CAS brief.
c. In the situation update.
d. In the correlation phase of CAS execution.

325. Which method of attack requires that the joint terminal attack controller’s (JTAC)/forward
air controller (airborne)’s (FAC(A)) intended target or mark is tally/contact/captured by the
aircrew?

a. Bomb on Time (BOT)

b. Bomb on Target (BOT)
c. Bomb on Correlation (BOC)
d. Bomb on Coordinate (BOC)

326. Which rotary-wing movement technique is used when enemy contact is remote?

a. Bounding Overwatch
b. Traveling Overwatch
c. Traveling
d. None of the Above

327. Which rotary-wing movement technique is used when enemy contact is possible?

a. Bounding Overwatch
b. Traveling Overwatch
c. Traveling
d. None of the Above

328. Which rotary-wing movement technique is used when enemy contact is imminent?

a. Bounding Overwatch
b. Traveling Overwatch
c. Traveling
d. None of the Above

329. Which rotary-wing attack tactic is performed when the aircraft is stationary or has little
forward motion?
a. Hovering Fire
b. Running Fire
c. Diving Fire
d. None of the Above

330. Which rotary-wing attack tactic is performed when the aircraft is level, forward flight?

a. Hovering Fire
b. Running Fire
c. Diving Fire
d. None of the Above

331. Which rotary-wing attack tactic is delivered while the aircraft is at altitude and in
descending forward flight?

a. Hovering Fire
b. Running Fire
c. Diving Fire
d. None of the Above
332. True / False: For successful JFO employment, it is imperative the JTAC and JFO
participate in the planning process.

a. True
b. False

333. What additional line of the CAS 9-line is a mandatory readback when working with
NATO forces?

a. Line 7
b. Line 8
c. Line 9
d. Line 5

334. Which of the following is NOT a remark but a restriction in the CAS brief?

a. LTL
b. PTL
c. ACAs
d. Surface-to-Air Threat

335. True / False: JTACs/FAC(A)s should respond to readbacks of a CAS brief with just
“readback correct” or “good readback”.

a. True
b. False
336. Which aircraft sensor posture is when the lead aircraft’s responsibility is the friendly
force, and the wing aircraft is primarily responsible for scanning the objective (or assigned
checkpoint) and back to the friendly force?

a. Neutral
b. Offensive
c. Defensive
d. None of the Above

337. Which aircraft sensor posture is when both the lead and wing aircraft concentrates on
the objective?

a. Neutral
b. Offensive
c. Defensive
d. None of the Above

338. Which aircraft sensor posture is when the lead aircraft’s responsibility is the friendly
force, and the wing aircraft is responsible for sanitizing the route directly in front of the friendly
force?

a. Neutral
b. Offensive
c. Defensive
d. None of the Above