Union Public Service Commission
Employees Provident Fund Organisation
EO/AO & APFC
Solved Papers
&
Practice Book
CHIEF EDITOR
Anand Kumar Mahajan
COMPILED & WRITTEN BY
EPFO Expert Group
EDITORIAL OFFICE
12, Church Lane Prayagraj-211002
Mob. : 9415650134
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website : www.yctbooks.com
PUBLISHER DECLARATION
Edited and Published by A.K. Mahajan printed for YCT Publications Pvt. Ltd.
and Printed by Lakshmi Narayan Printing Press, Prayagraj.
In order to publish the book, full care has been taken by the Editor and the
Publisher, still your suggestions and queries are welcomed. ` 295/-
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CONTENTS
SOLVED PAPER
EPFO & APFC Exam 2020 (Exam Date : 05.09.2021) -------------------------------------- 3-16
EPFO & APFC Exam 2017 (Exam Date : 26.02.2017) ------------------------------------- 17-31
EPFO & APFC Exam 2015 (Exam Date : 10.01.2016) ------------------------------------- 32-48
EPFO & APFC Exam 2012 ---------------------------------------------------------------------- 49-62
EPFO & APFC Exam 2004 ---------------------------------------------------------------------- 63-80
EPFO & APFC Exam 2002 ---------------------------------------------------------------------- 81-97
PRACTICE SET
PRACTICE SET-1 ------------------------------------------------------------------------------- 98-113
PRACTICE SET-2 ------------------------------------------------------------------------------ 114-128
PRACTICE SET-3 ------------------------------------------------------------------------------ 129-144
PRACTICE SET-4 ------------------------------------------------------------------------------ 145-160
PRACTICE SET-5 ------------------------------------------------------------------------------ 161-176
Union Public Service Commission
EPFO EO/AO & APFC Syllabus
Scheme and syllabus for the Recruitment Test (RT) for the posts of Enforcement
Officers/Accounts Officers is as under :
I. Scheme of the RT
(i) The test will be of two hours duration and the medium of the test will be both Hindi and
English.
(ii) The test will be an objective type with multiple choices of answers.
(iii) All questions will carry equal marks.
(iv) There will be penalty for wrong answer. Every wrong answer will carry a deduction of one-
third of the marks assigned to that question. If no answer is marked for a question, there
will be no penalty for that question.
II. Syllabus of the RT :
The syllabus of the Test will broadly comprise the following topics :
(i) General English – To evaluate candidate's understanding of English language & workman
– like use of words.
(ii) Indian Freedom Struggle.
(iii) Current Events and Developmental issues.
(iv) Indian Polity & Economy.
(v) General Accounting Principles.
(vi) Industrial Relations & Labour Laws.
(vii) General Science & Knowledge of Computer applications.
(viii) General Mental Ability & Quantitative Aptitude.
(ix) Social Security in India.
2
Enforcement Officer/Account Officer in Employees
Provident Funds Organisation (EPFO) 2020
SOLVED PAPER
Exam Date : 05-09-2021
Directions : Each of the following sentences in Ans. (c) : The correct answer to the given question will
this section has a blank space and four words or be 'on behalf of'. Hence the complete sentence will be -
group of words given after the sentence. Select the The bereaved mother proudly received the gallantry
word or group of words you consider most award - on behalf of - her brave son who had laid down
appropriate for the blank space and indicate your his life in the recent war.
response on the Answer Sheet accordingly.
ANTONYMS
1. It's time you went out and ______your own
living. Directions : Each item in this section consists of a
(a) afforded (b) earned sentence with an underlined word followed by four
words. Select the option that is opposite in meaning to
(c) gained (d) won
the underlined word and mark your response in your
Ans. (b) : The most suitable word for the given Answer Sheet accordingly.
sentence, among the given options, should be earned. 6. She always organises lavish parties on
So the complete sentence will be - birthdays.
It's time you went out and - earned - your own living. (a) frugal (b) decent
2. The elephant fell into a _______the hunters had (c) cheap (d) strange
set. Ans. (a) : The word lavish means giving or spending
(a) track (b) trap more than is necessary. Therefore out of the given
(c) trick (d) trunk options 'Frugal' (spending as much as is necessary) is
Ans. (b) : The correct word for the given sentence will correct antonym for the word lavish.
be trap. Hence the complete sentence will be - 7. The soldier was greatly praised for his valour.
The elephant fell into a - trap - the hunters had set. (a) clumsiness (b) cowardice
(c) selfishness (d) tactlessness
3. The dress isn't really tight. It'll _____when
you've worn it. Ans. (b) : The word valour means great courage and
lack of fear in war. Therefore the correct antonym for
(a) bend (b) expand
the word valour will be cowardice (lack of courage or a
(c) squeeze (d) stretch behaviour to show that the person is afraid).
Ans. (d) : The correct answer to the question will be 8. These regions are very fertile.
stretch, and the complete sentence will be - (a) sterile (b) arid
The dress isn't really tight. It'll - stretch - when you've (c) barren (d) productive
worn it.
Ans. (c) : In the given sentence the word fertile means a
4. With his back to the old man, he stood at the land capable of producing abundant vegetation,
window, fists clenched, and his shoulders therefore here the correct antonym for the word fertile
_____with his choked sobbing. will be barren (a land incapable of producing abundant
(a) shivered (b) shook vegitation).
(c) vibrated (d) moved 9. Some sick immigrants were detained at the
Ans. (b) : The most appropriate word for the given airport.
sentence should be shook. Therefore the complete (a) settlers (b) natives
sentence will be - (c) vagabonds (d) foreigners
With his back to the old man he stood at the window, Ans. (b) : The word immigrant refers to a person who
fists cleanched, and his shoulders - shook - with his has come to a foreign country to live there permanently.
choked sobbing. Therefore the correct antonym for the word immigrant
will be native (a person who is born in the country
5. The bereaved mother proudly received the before other people came to live there).
gallantry award ______her brave son who had 10. The questions were so elementary that anyone
laid down his life in the recent war. could pass the test.
(a) in the name of (b) in lieu of (a) unusual (b) primary
(c) on behalf of (d) for the sake of (c) naive (d) advanced
EPFO 2020 (Exam Date 5.9.2021) 3 YCT
Ans. (d) : Here the word elementary refers to the first or is any error in any underlined part and indicate your
initial stage of learning. Therefore the correct antonym response in the Answer Sheet against the
for the word elementary will be advanced (a highest corresponding letter i.e., (a) or (b) or (c). If you find
level of learning). no error, your response should be indicated as (d).
16. Neither the servants (a)/ nor the clerk (b)/ has
SYNONYMS done this.(c)/ No error (d)
Directions : Each item in this section consists of a Ans. (d) : The given sentence is grammatically correct
sentence with an underlined word followed by four and has no error.
words. Select the option that is nearest in meaning to 17. The car which went past us (a)/ when we were
the underlined word and mark your response in your driving on the highway (b)/ must have been
Answer Sheet accordingly. doing at least a hundred miles an hour.(c) / No
11. Today the newspaper is full of carnage and error(d)
violence Ans. (d) : The given sentence is grammatically correct
(a) bloodshed (b) lust and has no error.
(c) concern (d) satire 18. Raju will be back home (a)/ in an year (b)/
Ans. (a) : The meaning of carnage is the violent killing after his stay abroad.(c) No error (d)
of a large number of people, simillarly bloodshed also Ans. (b) : The correct article to be used before the word
referes to the killing of large numbers of people. year is 'a' and not 'an' as the y in year sounds like a
Therefore bloodshed will be correct synonym of the consonant.
word carnage. Therefore the correct sentence will be -
12. This religious gift, that makes men human, is Raju will be back home in a year after his stay abroad.
still alive in Indian souls. 19. I have (a)/ much work(b)/ to do.(c) No error(d)
(a) mystical (b) spiritual Ans. (d) : The given sentence is grammatically correct
(c) metaphysical (d) philosophical and has no error.
Ans. (b) : In Indian context the word religious is 20. Psychology did not develop into a science(a)/
synonymous to the word spritual. based of careful observation(b)/ and
13. It is difficult for us to imagine how much this experimentation until the late 1800s.(c)/ No
safety means to everyone. error (d)
(a) feel (b) understand Ans. (b) : The correct preposition in the section (b) of
(c) think (d) see the sentence should be 'on' instead of 'of '.
Ans. (c) : Some common synonyms of imagine are - PART-B
conceive, envisage, envision, fancy, realize and think.
21. How many times does the digit 3 appear
14. Public service is not merely something that between 1 and 100 such that the number where
occupies the hours you are doing it, but invades 3 appears is not divisible by 3?
all your life and experience and affects them in (a) 11 (b) 12
one way or the other. (c) 13 (d) 17
(a) preserves (b) demolishes Ans. (b) : The numbers having digit '3' in numbers from
(c) covers (d) spoils 1 to 100 are -
Ans. (c) : In the given sentence invade refers to 'spread 3, 13, 23, 30, 31, 32, 33, 34, 35, 36, 37, 38, 39, 43, 53,
over' in this sense out of the given options best 63, 73, 83, 93 out of these numbers, such numbers that
synonym of the word invade would be cover (to spread are not divisible by 3 are 13, 23, 31, 32, 34, 35, 37, 38,
over). 43, 53, 73 and 83. Therefore correct answer to the
15. He was, in the early part of the twentieth question is 12.
century, a staunch nationalist of the liberal 22. Which one of the following is the remainder
fold. when 74100 is divided by 9?
(a) profuse (b) dogmatic (a) 2 (b) 5
(c) plentiful (d) tolerant (c) 3 (d) 7
Ans. (d) : If we apply remainder theorem,
Ans. (d) : In the given sentence the word 'liberal' means
accepting different opinions. Therefore out of the given 74100
options the word tolerant (who accepts different 9
opinion) will be correct synonym for the word liberal. then dividing 74 by 9 we get 2 as remainder
( )
33
SPOTTING ERRORS 23 × 2
2100 833 × 2
Directions : Each item in this section has a ∴ = =
9 9 9
sentence with three underlined parts labelled (a), (b)
Now dividing 8 by 9 we get - 1 as remainder
and (c). Read each sentence to find out whether there
EPFO 2020 (Exam Date 5.9.2021) 4 YCT
∴
( −1)33 × 2 −2
25. Let n (>1) be a composite natural number
= whose square root is not an integer.
9 9 Consider the following statements :
Since the remainder can never be negative (1) n has a factor which is greater than 1 but
∴ the remainder is less than the square root of n.
–2+9=7 (2) n has a factor which is greater than the
Hence the required remainder will be 7. square root of n but less than n.
23. Which one of the following is the arithmetic Which of the statements given above is/are
correct?
mean of 3 − 2 and its reciprocal? (a) 1 only (b) 2 only
(a) 3 (b) 2 (c) Both 1 and 2 (d) Neither 1 nor 2
(c) 2 (d) 1 Ans. (c) : All natural number which are not prime
number, are composite numbers as they can be divided
Ans. (a) : The given number is 3− 2 by more than two numbers. For example 6 is a
∴ its reciprocal =
1
=
( 3+ 2 ) composite number because it is divisible by 1, 2, 3, and 6.
Now according to question, If the composite number is
3− 2 ( 3+ 2 )( 3− 2 ) not a perfect square then its square root is not an
integer. Therefore for the composite number 6 let see
⇒
( 3+ 2 ) =
3+ 2 the 1st statement -
6 has 1, 2, 3, and 6 as a factor, and 6 = 2.449
( 3) −( 2) 3−2
2 2
So, here 2 is greater than 1 but less than the square root
⇒ 3 + 2 of n.
Hence 1st Statement is correct.
Hence the required arithmetic mean
Also 3 is a factor of 6 which is greater than 6 but less
( 3− 2 + ) ( 3+ 2
= 3
)=2 3 than 6 itself. Therefore 2nd statement is also correct.
2 2 26. What is the equivalent decimal value of binary
24. Suppose x and y are two positive numbers such number 101110?
that when x is reduced by 2 and y is increased (a) 46 (b) 56
by 2, the ratio becomes 2 : 1; and when x is (c) 64 (d) 65
increased by 2 and y is reduced by 2, the ratio Ans. (a) : Binary to decimal
becomes 3 : 1. Which one of the following is (101110)2 = (1× 25) + (0 × 24) + (1×23) + (1×22) +
equal to x - y? (1×21) + (0× 20)
(a) 20 (b) 24 = 32 + 0 + 8 + 4 + 2 + 0 = 46
(c) 18 (d) 22 27. Which one of the following basic operations for
Ans. (a) : According to the question converting raw input data into useful
information is not performed by all computers?
( x − 2 ) = 2 ⇒ x − 2 = 2y + 4 (a) Inputting (b) Storing
( y + 2) 1 (c) Switching (d) Outputting
⇒ x – 2y = 6 ...(i) Ans. (c) : For converting raw input data into useful
again information, all computer system perform the following
five basic operations -
( x + 2 ) = 3 ⇒ x + 2 = 3y − 6 Inputting → storing → Processing → Outputting
( y − 2) 1 →Controlling
⇒ x – 3y = – 8 ...(ii) Switching is not a such operation.
by subtracting equation (i) from equation (ii) we get 28. Which one of the following memories is
x – 3y = – 8 extremely fast and acts as a high - speed buffer
x – 2y = 6 between the CPU and the main memory?
– + – (a) RAM (b) ROM
– y = – 14 (c) Flash Memory (d) Cache Memory
or y = 14 Ans. (d) : The cache memory is extremely fast and acts
Now putting the value of y in equation (i) as a high - speed buffer between the CPU and the main
memory. It is noteworthy that cache memory is
x – 2(14) = 6
supplementary memory system that temporarily stores
x – 28 = 6 ⇒ x = 34 frequently used instructions and data for quicker
∴ x – y = 34 – 14 = 20 processing by the CPU of a computer.
EPFO 2020 (Exam Date 5.9.2021) 5 YCT
29. Which one of the following is not a web 35. Who produced the Pirpur Report (1938)?
browser? (a) Muslim League
(a) Internet Explorer (b) Firefox (b) Unionist Party
(c) Fedora (d) Google Chrome (c) Ahrar Party
Ans. (c) : Fedora is a free and open source OS (d) Indian National Congress
plateform for hardware, clouds and containers. It is Ans. (a) : The 1938 Pirpur Report was brought out by
based on the Linux OS kernel architecture. It is not a the Muslim League to Portray a negative image of the
web browser, whereas Internet explorer, Mozilla Congress. The report listed cruelties suffered by
Firefox and Google chrome are famous web browser. Muslims in the Congress - ruled provinces.
30. Which one of the following represents 1 GB of 36. Which one of the following facts pertaining to
information? the National Green Tribunal (NGT) is not
(a) 1024 KB (b) 1024 MB correct?
(c) 1024 TB (d) 1024 PB (a) The NGT was set up in the year 2010.
Ans. (b) : 1 GB or 1 Gigabyte is a specific unit of data (b) Its purpose is to ensure effective and
that is equal to 1024 MB or Megabytes of data. The expeditious disposal of cases relating to
term GB or MB is typically used to describe the amount environmental protection and conservation of
of stored data or the capacity of a storage device. forests and other natural resources.
31. Where did Gandhiji put in his first major (c) It is bound by the procedure laid down under
public appearance after returning from South the Code of Civil Procedure.
Africa in 1915? (d) It is guided by the principles of natural
(a) Bombay University justice.
(b) Kheda Ans. (c) : The National Green Tribunal (NGT) was
(c) Champaran established on 18 October 2010 under the National
(d) Banaras Hindu University Green Tribunal Act 2010, for effective and expeditious
Ans. (d) : After returning from South Africa in 1915, disposal of cases relating to environmental protection
Gandhi ji made his first major public appearance at the and conservation of forest and other natural resources. It
Banaras Hindu University (BHU) in February 1916. is a specialized body equipped with the necessary
Here in his speech, Gandhi ji charged the Indian elite expertise to handle environmental disputes, involving
with a lack of concern for the labouring poor. multi - disciplinary issues. The Tribunal is not bound by
32. Who among the following is the author of the procedures laid down under the code of civil
'Gandhi as Mahatma'? procedure, 1908, but be guided by the principles of
(a) Mahadev Desai (b) Shahid Amin natural justice.
(c) Louis Fischer (d) David Arnold 37. Which one of the following is the mandate of
Ans. (b) : 'Gandhi as Mahatma' is an essay written by the Committee on Estimates?
historian Shahid Amin. In which he examined Gandhi (a) It reports on what economies, improvements
ji's visit to Gorakhpur in 1921. in organization, efficiency or administrative
33. Who among the following was the President of reform consistent with the policy underlying
the Indian National Congress at the time of the estimates, may be effected.
independence of India? (b) It scrutinizes appropriation and finance
(a) Pattabhi Sitaramayya (b) Jawaharlal Nehru accounts of the Government.
(c) Abul Kalam Azad (d) J.B. Kripalani (c) It examines reports of the Comptroller and
Ans. (d) : At the time of India's Independence, Acharya Auditor General and whether public
J.b. Kriplani was the President of Indian National undertakings are run efficiently.
Congress. He was elected as the president of congress in (d) It examines bills on matters of general public
1947 despite ideological differences with Vallabhbhai interest.
Patel and Jawarlal Nehru. Ans. (a) : The functions of the committee on Estimates
34. During 1931, under whose leadership, did a are as follows -
strong Kisan Sabha Movement develop in the • To report what economies, improvements in
Gaya District of Bihar? organization, efficiency or administrative reform,
(a) Yadunandan Sharma (b) Sahajanand consistant with the policy underlying the estimates,
(c) Sheetla Sahai (d) Tilka Manjhi may be effected;
Ans. (a) : During 1931, Shri Yadunandan Sharma led • To suggest alternative policies in order to bring about
Kisan Sabha Movement in Gaya District of Bihar. The efficiency and economy in administration;
Kisan Sabha Movement started in Bihar Under the • To examine weather the money is well laid out within
leadership of Swami Sahajanand Saraswati in 1929. the limits of the policy implied in the estimates; and
Pandit Yadunandan Sharma was considered only the • To suggest the form in which the estimates shall be
second prominent peasant leader after Swami presented to parliament. Hence only options a is
Sahajanand Saraswati. correct regarding the question.
EPFO 2020 (Exam Date 5.9.2021) 6 YCT
38. According to the Economic Survey 2020 - 21, 43. Which one of following is not a consequence of
which one of the following will be India's real deforestation?
GDP growth in the year 2021-22? (a) Increased groundwater table
(a) 9% (b) 11% (b) Decreased biodiversity
(c) 13% (d) 15% (c) Increased soil erosion
Ans. (b) : According to the Economic survey 2020-21, (d) Decreased rainfall
India's real GDP is projected to record a growth of Ans. (a) : Out of the given options consequences of
11.0% in the year 2021 - 22. deforestation are - Decreased biodiversity, increased
39. Which one of the following is the acronym for soil erosion and decreased rainfall. However increase in
the word 'NITI' in NITI Aayog? groundwater table is not a consequence of deforestion.
(a) National Integration and Transformation of High rainfall is a cause of increased ground water table.
India
44. Which one of the following chromosomes has a
(b) National Institution for Transforming India mismatched pair in a normal human male?
(c) National Institution for Technological India (a) Chromosome number 21
(d) National Institution for Trust in India (b) Chromosome number 18
Ans. (b) : The acronym NITI is NITI Aayog stands for (c) X - chromosome
National Institution for Transforming India. The NITI
(d) Chromosome number 13
Aayog was established to evolve a shared vision of
National development priorities, sectors and strategies Ans. (c) : Humans have two types of chromosomes - 22
with the active involvement of the States in the light of pairs of autosomes and a pair of sex chromosome
national objectives. (heterosome). The sex chromosomes in humans is of the
two types XX in female and XY in males. In human
40. Which one of the following is not a correct
description of the Namami Gange Programme? males X - chromosomes is not perfectly paired due
presence of a Y chromosomes
(a) It is an initiative of the Ministry of Jal Shakti.
(b) It primarily covers village in the States of 45. The word 'Vaccine' has been derived from a
Uttar Pradesh, Bihar and Odisha. Latin word having meaning
(c) It aims to make villages on the banks of the (a) Antibody (b) Immunity
river Ganga open defecation - free. (c) Cow (d) Guinea pig
(d) It aims to transform some villages on the Ans. (c) : The word 'vaccine' comes from the cowpox
banks of the river Ganga as Ganga Grams. virus vaccinia which is derived from the Latin word
Ans. (b) : The Namami Gange Programme is an vacca for cow.
initiative of the ministry of Jal Shakti. The Ministry of 46. Which one of the following statements is true
Drinking water and Sanitation identified 1674 gram with regard to the image formation by two eyes
panchayats situated on the bank of River Ganga in 5 of a person?
states namely Uttarakhand, Uttar Pradesh, Bihar, (a) Both the eyes see exactly the same image.
Jharkhand and West Bengal. Odisha is not included in (b) One eye sees half portion of the object.
it. Hence statement of the options b is incorrect.
(c) Both the eyes combine the two images seen
41. Which one of the following is not a female by them.
reproductive organ in humans? (d) Each eye sees a slightly different image.
(a) Ovaries (b) Oviducts
Ans. (d) : Since both eyes are separated, they form
(c) Cervix (d) Stamen
slightly different images. The brain receives two images
Ans. (d) : Stemen are the male reproductive organs of (one for each eye), processes them together with the
flowering plants. They consists of an anther (a site of other information received and returns one image.
pollen development) and a stalk - like filament. Rests
are female reproductive organ in humans. 47. Which one of the following statements is
correct?
42. Which one of the following cannot be called
"Amphibian of the Plant Kingdom"? Wavelength of microwaves ranges between
(a) Spirogyra (b) Riccia (a) infrared waves and radio waves.
(c) Funaria (d) Marchantia (b) visible waves and infrared light.
Ans. (a) : Those organisms that need both water and (c) γ - rays and X - rays.
land for their survival are called amphibians. (d) X-rays and visible waves.
Bryophytes are called the amphibians of plant kingdom Ans. (a) : The part of the electromagnetic spectrum
because they need both water and land for their survival having the frequency more than that of radio waves and
examples of Bryophytes are - Riccia, Funaria and less than that of infrared waves are called microwaves.
Marchantia. Therefore the wavelength of microwaves ranges
Spirogyra is a water algae. It is not an amphibian. between infrared waves and Radio waves.
EPFO 2020 (Exam Date 5.9.2021) 7 YCT
48. Which one of the following is the size of 53. Which one of the following will not be reduced
hydrogen atom? by metallic zinc?
(a) 10–10 m (b) 10 µm (a) Cu2+ (b) H+
+
(c) 10 mm (d) 1000 Å (c) Ag (d) Al3+
Ans. (a) : The size of a hydrogen atom in meters is 1.06 Ans. (d) : Cu+2, H+ and Ag+ are less reactive than
× 10-10 meters, which is approx. 10-10 m metallic zinc. Hence they can be easily reduced by
49. Which one of the following statements metallic zinc. However Al+3 is more reactive than
regarding force is correct? metallic zinc hence will not be reduced by metallic zinc.
(a) A positive force implies attractive nature. 54. Who among the following discovered Proton?
(b) A negative force implies repulsive nature. (a) J.J. Thomson (b) E. Goldstein
(c) A positive force can be both attractive and
(c) E. Rutherford (d) J. Chadwick
repulsive in nature.
(d) A negative force implies attractive nature. Ans. (c) : The discovery of proton is credited to Ernest
Rutherford, who proved that the nucleus of the
Ans. (d) : A negative force implies an attractive force.
hydrogen atom (which he named proton) is present in
The force is directed along the line joining the two
charges. Coulomb's law describes a force of infinite the nuclei of all other atoms.
range which obeys the inverse square law and is of the However UPSC has considered option (b) as the correct
same form as the gravity forces. answer.
50. When a dielectric material is kept in an 55. Consider the following balanced equation :
external electric field, which one of the CO(g) + 2H2(g) → CH3OH (l)
following phenomena may be realized? How many moles of CH3OH(l) can be obtained
(a) Magnetization (b) Polarization by reacting 2.0 mole of CO(g) with 2.0 mole of
(c) Photoionization (d) Circularization H2(g)?
Ans. (b) : A dielectric material is a poor conductor of (a) 1 (b) 2
electricity but an efficient supporter of electrostatic (c) 3 (d) 4
field. Dielectric materials support dielectric
Ans. (a) : In the chemical equation -
polarization, which enables them to act as dielectric
rather than conductors. The polarization of dielectric CO(g) + 2H2(g) → CH3OH (l)
material occurs when they are placed in and electric for one mole of CO, 2 mole of H2 is needed
field and positive charges are displaced in the direction ∴ for 2 mole of CO, 4 mole of H2 will be needed
of the electric field, while the negative charges are But in case of only 2 mole of H2 is given, H2 will act as
displaced in the opposite direction. Such polorization limiting agent and only one mole of CH3OH will be
creats a strong internal field, which reduces the overall
produced.
electric field within the material.
56. Which one of the following pairs of Zonal
51. Which one of the following substances, when
added to water, will not change the pH? Railways and their Headquarters is not
(a) NaHCO3 (b) NH4Cl correctly matched?
(c) Na2CO3 (d) NaCl (a) Central - Nagpur
Ans. (d) : Out of the given options only NaCl is neutral (b) Eastern - Kolkata
in nature, therefore, when added to water it does not (c) Western - Mumbai
changes the pH of the water. (d) Northern - New Delhi
Note :- Ans. (a) : The correct match of Railway Zone and their
NaHCO3 → basic in nature Headquarters is given below -
NH4Cl → Acidic in nature Railway Zone Headquarters
Na2CO3 → basic in nature Central Railway Mumbai
52. Which one of the following, on adding to water, Eastern Railway Kolkata
will not scatter a beam of light? Western Railway Churchgate (Mumbai)
(a) Copper sulphate (b) Chalk powder Northern Railway New Delhi
(c) Milk (d) Ink Note :- Nagpur is not a Headquarter of Railway Zone
Ans. (a) : Scattering of beam of a light occurs in but it is a division in Central Railway.
colloidal solutions. It is also known as 'Tyndall effect'.
57. Tri - service contingent of which one of the
Chalk powder, milk and ink are colloidal solutions
therefore they show Tyndall effect. However Copper following countries participated in India's
Sulphate when added to water creates a solution not a Republic Day parade in 2021?
colloid. Hence, correct answer to the question will be (a) Myanmar (b) Nepal
Copper Sulphate. (c) Bhutan (d) Bangladesh
EPFO 2020 (Exam Date 5.9.2021) 8 YCT
Ans. (d) : On 26th January 2021, for the first time, a Code :
marching contigent and band of Bangladesh tri - A B C D A B C D
services participated in the Republic Day Parade of (a) 1 2 4 3 (b) 3 4 2 1
India, to commemorate 50 years of its historic (c) 1 4 2 3 (d) 3 2 4 1
liberation.
In 2023, the tri - service contigent of Egypt participated Ans. (a) : The correct match is as follows -
in India's Republic Day Parade. • Closure :- It is an act of permanantly closing down of
58. Which one of the following does not figure in a place of employment.
the list of languages in theEighth Schedule of • Workmen :- A workman is a person employed in any
the Constitution of India? industry to do skilled, unskilled or manual work.
(a) Dogri (b) Bhoti • Strike :- A period of time when people refuse to go to
(c) Maithili (d) Santhali work (cessation of work by employees), usually
Ans. (b) : Bodo, Dogri, Maithili and Santhali are because they want to make their voices heared by the
languages added in the 8th Schedule of the constitution management.
of India in 2004. However Bhoti (a language spoken • Lockout :-A lockout is a temporary closing down of
across the regions of Ladakh and Tawang in Arunchal
workplace by the management.
Pradesh) is not a language added in 8th Schedule.
59. As a routine exercise, Operations 'Garam 62. Who is an 'Adolescent' as per the Factories
Hawa' and 'Sard Hawa' are conducted by Act, 1948?
(a) BSF (b) ITBP (a) Who has completed 15 years of age but is less
(c) CRPF (d) CISF than 18 years
Ans. (a) : Operation 'Garam Hawa' and 'Sard Hawa' are (b) Who is less than 18 years
annual vigil operation conducted by Border Security (c) Who has completed 14 years of age but is less
Forces (BSF). Operation Garam Hawa is conducted than 18 years
usually in the month of May or June when the heat (d) Who has completed 16 years of age but is less
waves are extreme to check the infiltration. Simillarly than 18 years
Operation Sard Hawa is conducted in month of January
along Rajasthan's western border. Ans. (a) : According to the Factories Act, 1948, an
'Adolescent' is a person who has completed his/her
60. Who among the following was the founder of
fifteen years of age but has not completed his/her
Swatantra Party?
eighteen years. According to this Act, an adolescent is
(a) C. Rajagopalachari
only allowed to work in a factory between 6 a.m. and 7
(b) Deen Dayal Upadhyaya
p.m.
(c) Shyama Prasad Mukherjee
(d) Acharya Narendra Dev 63. What is a controlled industry?
Ans. (a) : Swatantra Party was founded in the year (a) Any industry the control of which by the
1959. by C. Rajagopalchari, Minoo Masani and N.G. Union has been declared by any Central Act
Ranga, in the opposition of the socialistic and statist to be expedient in the public interest
policies of the Congress government. Swatantra Party (b) Any industry the control of which by the
was a liberal conservative party that stood for market - State has been declared by any State Act to be
based economy and the dismantling of the license raj. expedient in the public interest
61. Match List I with List II and select the correct (c) Any industry the control of which by the
answer using the code given below the lists : Municipal bodies has been declared by any
List I List II Municipal Rules to be expedient in the public
(Term) (Explanation) interest
A. Closure 1. Permanent closing (d) Any Industry the control of which by the
down of a place of State has been declared by any Central Act to
employment be expedient in the public interest
B. Workmen 2. Any person employed Ans. (a) : According to the section 2 of the Industrial
in any industry to do Disputes Act, 1947, controlled industry means any
skilled, unskilled or industry, the control of which by the Union has been
manual work declared by any Central Act to be expedient in the
C. Strike 3. Temporary closing public interest.
down of workplace by 64. What is the minimum number of members
the management required for registration of a Trade Union?
D. Lockout 4. Cessation of work by (a) 2 members (b) 3 members
employees
(c) 7 members (d) 10 members
EPFO 2020 (Exam Date 5.9.2021) 9 YCT
Ans. (c) : As per the Trade Unions (Amendment) Act, 68. Which one of the following registers is used to
2001, the minimum number of members required for keep track of the next instruction to be
registration of a Trade Union is seven. According to the executed?
Act, no Trade Union of workmen shall be registered (a) Memory address register
unless it has on the date of making application not less (b) Memory buffer register
than seven persons as its members, who are workmen
(c) Program counter
engaged or employed in the establishment or industry
with which it is connected. (d) Memory data register
65. Which of the following disputes is/are Ans. (c) : The register which is used to keep track of the
considered as trade disputes(s) under the next instruction to be executed is called the program
provision of the Trade Union Act, 1926,? counter. It contains the address (location) of the
Any dispute of any person connected with instruction being executed at the current time. As each
1. Employment instruction gets fetched, the program counter increases
2. Non - Employment its stored value by 1.
3. Conditions of Labour 69. Which one of the following is not an audio file
Select the correct answer using the code given format?
below : (a) MIDI (b) WAV
(a) 1 only (b) 2 and 3 only (c) SWF (d) MPEG
(c) 1, 2 and 3 (d) 1 and 3 only
Ans. (c) : SWF (Small Web Format) is an Adobe flash
Ans. (c) : According to the provisions of the Trade file format which contains videos and vector based
Union Act, 1926, trade dispute means any dispute animations. Whereas rests of the given options are
between employers and workmen or between workmen
audio file format.
and workmen, or between employers and employers
which is connected with the employment or non- 70. Which one of the following denotes sequential
employment or the terms of employment or the electronic circuit that is used to store 1- bit of
conditions of labour, of any person. information?
66. Which one of the following is not a language (a) Register (b) Transistor
translator? (c) Flip - flop (d) Capacitor
(a) Assembler (b) Linker Ans. (c) : The Flip-flop denotes a sequential electronic
(c) Interpreter (d) Compiler circuit that is used to store a single bit (1- bit) of data. A
Ans. (b) : Generally there are three types of language flip - flop has two stable states and can be used to store
translators namely - Compiler, Assembler and state information.
Interpreter. Linker is not a language translators.
71. Which one of the following does 'Nirguna
Compiler translates a programming languages' source
Bhakti' refer to?
code into machine code, bytecode or another
programming language Assembler translates the (a) Shaivite form of worship
program written in Assembly language into machine (b) Vaishnavite form of worship
code. An interpreter translates the entire source code (c) Incarnation worship
line by line. (d) Abstract form of God worship
Note :- A linker is a utility program that takes the object Ans. (*) : Nirguna Bhakti (Nir - without and guna =
files, produced by the assembler and compiler and other qualities) is devotion to and worship of the formless
code to join them into a single executable file. Divine. It is a kind of devotion that lacks any desire for
67. Which one of the following statements is personal gain and is not motivated by any of the three
correct? gunas - Sattva (Purity), Rajas (ego) and Tamas
A device driver of output devices (lethargy).
(a) interprets input provided by users into However the question has been deleted by the UPSC.
computer usable form.
72. What did Ain - i - Akbari seek to promote
(b) interprets computer outputs into user
within the frontiers of the Mughal State?
understandable form.
(c) translates user inputs into output device (a) Social disharmony influenced by the whims
(d) facilitates user to communicate with output of the nobility
device. (b) Cessation of the provincial units from central
rule
Ans. (b) : A device driver of output devices interprets
computer output into user understandable form. The (c) Social harmony with the support of a strong
main purpose of device drivers is to provide abstraction ruling class
by acting as an interpreter between a hardware device (d) Establishment of a rule of rural republics by
and the applications or operating systems that uses it. overthrowing the Mughal suzerainty
EPFO 2020 (Exam Date 5.9.2021) 10 YCT
Ans. (c) : According to Abu'l - Fazl (author of Ain - i - 2. The Ramsar Convention is about wetland
Akbari), the main aim of Akbar's defend, conquests was conservation.
to bring social harmony with the support of a strong 3. At present there are 76 Ramsar Sites in
ruling class. He wants to bring the maximum people India.
under his liberal, tolerant, just and peaceful Select the correct answer using the code given
administration to provide maximum political benefits to below :
maximum people. (a) 2 and 3 only (b) 1, 2 and 3
73. Gandhiji's Salt March to Dandi was started (c) 1 only (d) 1 and 2 only
from which one of the following places? Ans. (d) : India is one of the contracting parties to
(a) Kochrab Ashram Ramsar convention, signed in Ramsar, Iran in 1971.
(b) Sabarmati Ashram India signed it on 1st February 1982. Hence 1st
(c) Ahmedabad Textile Mill statement is correct.
(d) Ahmedabad Jail The objective of Ramsar Convention is to halt the
Ans. (b) : Gandhiji's Salt March or Salt Satyagraha worldwide loss of wetlands and to conserve, through
started on 12th March 1930 from Sabarmati Ashram wise use and management, those that remain. Hence
and ended at Dandi after 24 days on 6th April 1930. It 2nd statement is also correct.
was an act of civil disobedience led by Gandhi ji. When the question was asked i.e. in 2020 there were 42
74. Who among the following was not a member of Ramasar sites in India. However at present (till August
the Socialist group in the Congress Party? 2022) there are 75 Ramsar sites in India. Hence 3rd
(a) Jayaprakash Narayan (b) Rajendra Prasad statement is incorrect.
(c) N.G. Ranga (d) Narendra Dev 78. Which one of the following is not an objective
Ans. (b) : The Congress Socialist Party was a socialist under Pradhan Mantri Krishi Sinchayee
group within the Indian National Congress founded in Yojana (PMKSY)?
1934 by socialists such as Jayaprakash Narayan, N.G. (a) Providing subsidies to use fertilizer, high
Ranga and Acharya Narendera Dev. Dr. Ranjendra yielding varieties (HYV) and pesticides
Prasad, a staunch follower of Gandhi ji was not a part of (b) To achieve convergence of investments in
the congress socialist party. irrigation at the field level
75. Which one of the following was not (c) To expand cultivable area under assured
recommended in Macaulay's 1835 Minute on irrigation
Education? (d) Improving on - farm water use efficiency
(a) Teaching in English medium
Ans. (a) : Pradhan Mantri Krishi Sinchayee Yojna is an
(b) 'Liberal' literary training
irrigation scheme. It is not related to fertilizers,
(c) Teaching of Western texts alone at higher
pesticides or high yeild variety seeds. The major
levels of education
objective of PMKSY is to achieve convergence of
(d) Teaching of both Western and Oriental texts investments in irrigation at the field level, expand
at higher levels of education
cultivable area under assured irrigation, imporve on
Ans. (d) : The Macaulay's 1835 minute on education form water use efficiency to reduce wastage of water,
did not recommended oriental texts at higher levels of enhance the adoption of precision irrigation and other
education. It only recommended western text at higher water saving technologies (more crop per drop). etc.
levels of education. Therefore option(d) is the correct
answer to the question. 79. In which one of the following places, was Asia's
first Export Processing Zone (EPZ) set up in
76. Which one of the following States will be 1965?
directly connected with Assam by the proposed
(a) Ahmedabad (b) Kandla
bridge between Dhubri and Phulbari over river
Brahmaputra? (c) Mumbai (d) Jaipur
(a) Arunachal Pradesh (b) Meghalaya Ans. (b) : With setting up Asia's first EPZ in Kandla in
(c) West Bengal (d) Mizoram 1965, India became the first country in Asia' to
Ans. (b) : The proposed Dhubri - Phulbari bridge, is a recognize the effectiveness of the Export processing
19 km long under construction 4 lane bridge project Zone (EPZ) model in promoting exports. Therefore the
over Brahmputra river connecting Dhubri in Assam and correct answer to the question is option 'b'.
Phulbari in Meghalaya. 80. Which one of the following is the name of the
77. Which of the following statements is/are scheme introduced as a well - targeted system
correct? of service delivery to LPG customers?
1. India is a signatory to the Ramsar (a) SAHAJ (b) PAHAL
Convention. (c) UDAY (d) UDAN
EPFO 2020 (Exam Date 5.9.2021) 11 YCT
Ans. (a) : SAHAJ scheme was launched by the 'Z'. Which one of the following is the fourth
Government of India in 12 cities an 30th August 2015 letter to the right of the 13th letter?
as a well targeted system of service delevery to LPG (a) N (b) O
customers. It enables the customers to register, make (c) M (d) I
payment online for availing LPG connections at their Ans. (a) : According to question the english alphabet
doorstep without visiting the LPG distributors. will be -
81. Which one of the following is the average of all FEDCBALKJIHGRQPONMXWVUTSZY
prime numbers between 21 and 55? ∴ 13th letter → R
(a) 35.85 (b) 36.71 4th letter to the right of the 13th letter = N
(c) 38.00 (d) 39.00 85. If 'a' varies as 'b', then which of the following
Ans. (c) : The Prime numbers between 21 and 55 are - statements is/are correct?
23, 29, 31, 37, 41, 43, 47 and 53. Therefore their 1. nth root of a2b varies as (2n)th root of a4b2.
23 + 29 + 31 + 37 + 41 + 43 + 47 + 53 a
average will be = 2. 2 varies inversely as b.
8 b
= 38 Select the correct answer using the code given
82. If the ratio of speeds of 'A' and 'B' is 5 : 6 and below :
'B' allows 'A' a start of 70 meters in a 1.2 km (a) 1 only (b) 2 only
race, who will win the race and by what (c) Both 1 and 2 (d) Neither 1 nor 2
distance? Ans. (c) : If a varies as be then a = kb
(a) 'A' wins by 30 m. now According to question -
(b) 'B' wins by 200 m.
a 2 b = n ( kb ) × b = n k 2 b3
n 2
(c) 'B' wins by 130 m.
(d) The race finishes in a dead heat.
a 4 b 2 = 2n ( kb ) × b 2 = 2n k 4 b 4 × b 2 = n k 2 b3
2n 4
and
Ans. (c) : Suppose the speeds of A and B are 50 m/s
and 60 m/s respectively also, B allows A a start of 70 m Hence 1st statement is correct.
in a 1.2 km or 1200 m race. That means to win the race again
'A' have to cover a distance of (1200 - 70) m = 1130 m a kb k
While 'B' have to cover 1200 m. = 2 = 2 =
b b b
1130
∴ Time taken by A to cover 1130 m = = 22.6 sec. 1
50 = k×
b
1200 Hence 2nd statement is also correct.
and time taken by B to cover 1200 m = = 20 sec.
60 86. Which one of the following statements about
So B would win the race. Trial Balance is correct?
Time difference between B and A = 2.6 sec. (a) It is a book containing different accounts of
∴ distance by which B would win = 2.6 × 50 = 130m. an entity.
[Because 'A' have Yet to cover 130 m when 'B' finishes (b) It is a statement containing balances of
the race] debtors of an entity.
83. 'M' is 60 years old. 'R' is 5 years junior to 'M' (c) It is a statement containing balances of
and 4 years senior to 'V'. The youngest brother debtors and creditors of an entity
of 'V' is 'B' and he is 6 years junior to 'V'. (d) It is a statement containing the various ledger
What is the age difference between 'M' and balances of an entity on a particular date.
'B'? Ans. (d) : Trial Balance is a statement of all debits and
(a) 18 years (b) 15 years credits in a double entry account book. It is a statement
(c) 13 years (d) 11 years containing the various ledger balances of an entity on a
Ans. (b) : Age of M = 60 yrs particular date. Rests of the statements are incorrect.
Age of R = 60 – 5 = 55 yrs 87. Wages paid for installation of machinery is
Age of V = 55 – 4 = 51 yrs debited to which one of the following accounts?
Age of B = 51 – 6 = 45 yrs. (a) Wages Account
Age difference between M and B = 60 – 45 = 15 yrs. (b) Machinery Account
(c) Installation Account
84. The English alphabet is reordered in the
following manner : (d) Profit and Loss Account
The first 6 letters are written in opposite order, Ans. (b) : The wages paid for installation of machinary
the next 6 letters are written in opposite order is a part of the cost of the machinary. Therefore it
and so on. At the end, 'Y' is interchanged with should be debited to machinary account.
EPFO 2020 (Exam Date 5.9.2021) 12 YCT
88. When are current liabilities payable? Ans. (a) : In Ryotwari system the peasants or
(a) Within a year cultivators were regarded as the owners of the land.
(b) After one year but within five years They had the ownership rights so they could sell
(c) Within five years mortgage or gift the land. Therefore in the Ryotwari
areas a large amount of land passed into the hands of
(d) Subject to a contingency
the money lander, merchants and rich peasants, who
Ans. (a) : Current liabilites also called short - term usually utilized the services of the tenants.
liabilities are debts a company must pay within a 93. In the year 1911, who among the following
normal operating cycle usually less than a year. formed the Social Service League in Bombay?
89. Is the total of Debit and Credit side of Trial (a) G.K. Gokhale (b) S.A. Dange
Balance the same? (c) N.M. Joshi (d) M.R. Jayakar
(a) No, there are some times good reason why Ans. (c) : In 1911 N.M. Joshi moved to Bombay where
they differ. he founded the Social Services league and developed a
(b) Yes, always number of educational, social reformss and social
(c) Yes, except where the Trial Balance is welfare activities amongst industrial workers in
extracted at the year end. Bombay.
(d) No, because it is not a Balance Sheet. 94. Who among the following was not part of the
Ans. (*) : The total of debit balances of different group of 'no-changers' in the Congress Party?
accounts in the ledger must be equal to the total of the (a) Sardar Vallabhbhai Patel
credit balances in the remaining accounts, provided (b) Dr. Ansari
transactions have been correctly posted in the ledger. (c) Babu Rajendra Prasad
However the commission has considered option (a) as (d) Motilal Nehru
the correct answer. Ans. (d) : The No - changers were the group of leaders
90. Which one of the following is the first book in within the Indian National Congress who had accepted
which the transactions of a business unit are Gandhi ji's decision to withdraw the Non Cooperation
recorded? movement. They also opposed the council entry as
supported by the swarajists Motilal Nehru and C.R. Das
(a) Balance Sheet (b) Cash Book were main leaders of swarjist faction.
(c) Ledger (d) Journal
95. Who among the following was not a member of
Ans. (d) : A journal is the first book in which the Cabinet Mission?
transactions are recorded before they get transferred (a) Pethick - Lawrence (b) Stafford Cripps
into accounts in the ledger. A journal contains daily (c) A.V. Alexander (d) Lord Wavell
details of business transactions, this means that all
Ans. (d) : Cabinet Mission was sent in February 1946
transactions for a day are recorded in the journal. by the Atlee Government as a high powered mission in
91. Who among the following did not represent the India. The mission contained Secretary of State for
militant nationalist school of thought in India? India Pethick Lawrence, Stafford Cripps and A.V.
(a) Ashwini Kumar Dutt Alexander. Lord Wavell was not a part of the mission.
(b) Vishnushastri Chiplunkar 96. Who among the following is the first player in
(c) Krishna Kumar Mitra the history of Test Cricket to take 200 wickets
(d) Lala Lajpat Rai against left - handed batsmen?
Ans. (c) : Out of the given options Krishna Kumar (a) Muttiah Muralitharan
mitra was not associated with the militant nationalist (b) James Michael Anderson
school of thought in India. He was a journalist and a (c) Stuart Broad
Brahmo Samaj leader. He was also associated with (d) Ravichandran Ashwin
Indian National congress since its inception and was Ans. (d) : In February 2021 Indias' Ravichandran
part of its 'moderate' faction in Bengal. Ashwin became the first player in the history of Test
Cricket to take 200 wickets against left - handed
92. Which one of the following statemnts about the
batsman. He achieved the feat during the India's 2nd
situation in the Ryotwari areas is correct?
Test against England played in February 2021 when he
(a) A large amount of land passed into the hands dismissed Stuart Broad.
of the money lenders, merchants and rich
97. Who among the following Speakers of Lok
peasants, who usually utilised the services of
Sabha formally disassociated from the political
the tenants. party after his election as the Speaker?
(b) Landless labourers became the land owners. (a) G.V. Mavalankar
(c) It stopped the practice of leasing out land to (b) Sardar Hukam Singh
tenants at high prices. (c) Neelam Sanjiva Reddy
(d) Landlordism was totally destroyed. (d) P.A. Sangma
EPFO 2020 (Exam Date 5.9.2021) 13 YCT
Ans. (c) : In the parliamentary history of India, Dr. Ans. (d) : According to the section 51 of the factories
Neelam Sanjiva Reddy is the only speaker since Act 1948, no worker is required to work for more than
independence, who after assuming the office of the 48 hours in any week. It also provide that every worker
speaker formally resigned from his political party. He is entitled to an interval break of at least half an hour
also had the distinction of being the only speaker who and not more than 5 hours of work should pass before
was later unanimously elected as the President of India such interval.
98. UNESCO has been observing February 21 as 103. What is the maximum period in which the
the International Mother Language Day since appropriate government shall review and
2000. The idea to celebrate the International revise the minimum rates of wages under the
Mother Language Day was the initiative of Minimum Wages Act, 1948?
which of the following nations? (a) 2 years (b) 3 years
(a) Sri Lanka (b) Bangladesh (c) 4 years (d) 5 years
(c) India (d) Nepal Ans. (d) : The minimum Wages Act 1948 generally
specifies minimum wage rates on a per day basis, and
Ans. (b) : The idea to celebrate International mother extends to the entire country and is revised within a
language day was the initiative of Bangladesh. The UN period of not less than five years, however there is a
General Assembly welcomed the proclamation of the provision to increase dearness allowance every two
day in its resolution of 2002. years.
99. Dr. Ngozi Okonjo - Iweala was recently 104. Under Sukanya Samriddhi Yojana, what is the
selected as the first woman Director - General maximum amount that can be deposited during
of WTO. She hails from which one of the a financial year?
following countries? (a) Rs. 1.5 lakh (b) Rs. 1 lakh
(a) Japan (b) Ethiopia (c) Rs. 2 lakh (d) Rs. 2.5 lakh
(c) Nigeria (d) Egypt Ans. (a) : The Sukanya Samriddhi Yojana (SSY) is a
Ans. (c) : Dr. Ngozi Okonjo - Iweala is a Nigerian government backed small deposit scheme for a girl
economist, who has been serving as the Director - child and her financial needs. It was launched as part of
General of the World Trade Organization since March the 'Beti Bachao Beti Padhao' compaign. Under the
2021. scheme minimum deposit of Rs. 250/- and maximum
100. The Kaladan Multi-Modal Transit Transport deposit of Rs. 1.5 lakh in a financial year can be made
Project will connect India with which one of the in the name of a girl child till she attain the age of 10
following countries? years.
(a) Nepal (b) Myanmar 105. What is the minimum and maximum age at
(c) Bhutan (d) Afghanistan which a subscriber can join the Atal Pension
Yojana?
Ans. (b) : The Kaladan Multi Modal Transit Transport (a) 21 years and 58 years respectively
project connects Sittwe port in Myanmar to the India - (b) 18 years and 40 years respectively
Myanmar border. It will create a Multi - modal platform
(c) 18 years and 50 years respectively
for cargo shipments from eastern ports to Myanmar and
(d) 21 years and 60 years respectively
to the North - eastern parts of India through Myamar.
Ans. (b) : The Atal Pension Yojna (APY) was launched
101. What is the maximum amount of gratuity on 09.05.2015 to create a universal social security
payable to the employees under the Payment of system for all Indians, especially the poor, the under -
Gratuity Act, 1972? privileged and the workers in the unorganised sector. It
(a) Rs. 5,00,000 (b) Rs. 10,00,000 is administered by Pension Fund Regulatory and
(c) Rs.15,00,000 (d) Rs. 20,00,000 Development Authority (PFRDA). The APY is open to
Ans. (d) : Gratuity is an amount offered to the all bank account holder in the age group of 18 to 40
employees for proffering their services to the years and the contribution differ, based on pension
organization or company. The employer provides this amount chosen.
amount, and the employees do not need to contribute to 106. Which one of the following denotes Gross
the funds. Profit?
According to the Payment of Gratuity Act, 1972, the (a) Cost of goods sold + Opening stock
maximum gratuity limit that the employees can receive (b) Sales less Cost of goods sold
is upto Rs. 20 laksh for both private sector and (c) Sales less Purchases
government employees. (d) Net profit less Expenses of the period
102. What is the maximum number of hours in a Ans. (b) : Gross profit is the profit a business makes
week that an adult worker is allowed to work after subtracting all the costs that are related to
for? manufacturing and selling its product or services. It is
(a) 35 hours (b) 40 hours calculated by deducting the cost of goods sold from the
(c) 45 hours (d) 48 hours total sales.
EPFO 2020 (Exam Date 5.9.2021) 14 YCT
107. What is the underlying accounting concept that 111. Who among the following is the author of the
supports no anticipation of profits but book 'The Little Book of Encouragement'?
provision for all possible losses? (a) Dalai Lama (b) A.P.J. Abdul Kalam
(a) Matching (b) Materiality (c) Ravi Shankar (d) Jagadish Vasudev
(c) Consistency (d) Conservatism Ans. (a) : The book "The Little Book of
Ans. (d) : Conservatism is the accounting concept that Encouragement" is authoured by the 14th Dalai Lama,
supports no anticipation of profits but provision for all the spiritual leader of Tibetan People. In this book he
possible losses. According to this principle gains should has shared quotes and words of wisdom to promote
be recorded only if their occurrence is certain, but all human happiness.
potential losses, even those with a remote chance of 112. Which day has been declared by the
incurrence, are to be recognized. Government of India to be celebrated every
108. Which one of the following accounting concepts year as "Parakram Diwas"?
is applied by an entity, when events such as (a) 23 January (b) 14 April
new competitor entering in the market and rift (c) 28 May (d) 25 December
between production and marketing Ans. (a) : The Indian Government in 2021 declared
departments are not disclosed in the books of January 23, the birth anniversary of Netaji Subhas
accounts? Chandra Bose as Parakram Diwas. The dicision was
(a) Matching taken to honour the contributions of Netaji towards
(b) Money Measurement India's freedom struggle.
(c) Revenue Recognition 113. A copy of the famous 16th century art work
(d) Cost 'Salvator Mundi', which was reportedly stolen,
has recently been recovered by the Police in
Ans. (b) : The money measurement concept underlines Italy. The painting is attributed to whom
the fact that in accounting, a business should only among the following?
record an accounting transactions if it can be expressed (a) Vincent van Gogh (b) Pablo Picasso
in terms of money. Therefore events like new (c) Michelangelo (d) Leonardo da Vinci
competitors entering the market and rift between
production and marketing departments are not disclosed Ans. (d) : In January 2021, Italian police recovered a
500 years old copy of Leonardo da Vinci's 16th century
in the books of account under the money measurement
'Salvator Mundi" painting of Jesus christ that was stolen
concept of accounting.
from a Naples church during the pandemic without the
109. Which one of the following concerns prepares prists even realizing it was gone.
Receipts and Payments Account? 114. The Global Firepower Index - 2021, a military
(a) Trading concerns strenght ranking, placed India at which rank?
(b) Non - trading concerns (a) 2nd (b) 3rd
(c) Manufacturing concerns (c) 4 th
(d) 5th
(d) Companies registered under Companies Act Ans. (c) : India is ranked 4th out of 145 countries
Ans. (b) : The receipts and payments accounts considered for the annual Global Firepower Review
summarizes receipts and payments made by a non- India holds a Power Index score of 0.1025.
trading concerns during a particular period of time 115. Naomi Osaka won the women's singles title of
(usually one year). The receipts and payments account the Australian Open Tennis Tournament, 2021.
is prepared from transaction recorded in cash book and Who among the following was defeated by her
can also be termed as a summarized version of cash in the finals?
book of non - trading concerns. (a) Venus Williams (b) Jennifer Brady
110. Which one of the following statements is (c) Serena Williams (d) Simona Halep
correct about Income and Expenditure Ans. (b) : Naomi Osaka won the women's singles title
Account? of the Australion open Tennis Tournament 2021 by
(a) It is a Real Account defeating Jennifer Brady in the final.
(b) It is a Personal Account 116. The average age of a husband and his wife was
(c) It is a Nominal Account 23 years when they were married 5 years ago.
(d) It is a Representative Personal Account The average age of the husband, the wife and
Ans. (c) : An income and expenditure account is a their child is 20 years now. How old is the child
nominal account maintained on an accrual basis. It now?
records every revenue and expenditure of a non-trading (a) 9 months (b) 1 years
organisation in a specific financial year. (c) 3 years (d) 4 years
EPFO 2020 (Exam Date 5.9.2021) 15 YCT
Ans. (d) : Let the current age of husband, wife and the 119. The average weight of 100 students in a class is
child is x, y and z respectively. 46 kg. The average weights of boys and girls
∴ According to question (5 years ago) are 50 kg and 40 kg respectively. What is the
( x − 5) + ( y − 5) difference between the number of boys and
= 23
2 girls?
or x + y – 10 = 46 (a) 30 (b) 25
= x + y = 56 ...(i) (c) 20 (d) 10
Also currently
Ans. (c) : Given -
x+y+z
= 20 Average weight of 100 students = 46 kg
3
Average weight of boys = 50 kg
⇒ x + y + z = 60
Average weight of girls = 40 kg
or 56 + z = 60
⇒ z = 60 – 56 = 4 Now let the no. of boys be x and that of girls be
Hence current age of the child is 4 years. (100 - x)
117. If W1 and W2 are weights of two solid iron balls 50x + (10 − x ) 40
1 1 ∴ = 46
of radii metre and metre respectively, 100
2 3 ⇒ 50x + 4000 – 40x = 4600
then which one of the following is equal to W1 :
W2 ? ⇒ 10x = 4600 – 4000
(a) 8 : 27 (b) 27 : 8 10x = 600
(c) 4 : 16 (d) 16 : 4 600
Ans. (b) : x= = 60
10
As we know weight = Volume × Density and both balls
are of same material So the number of boys = 60
∴ Weight ∝ Volume. ∴ no. of girls = 100 – 60 = 40
4 ∴ difference between the number of boys and girls
So Volume of ball = πR 3 (Where R = radius)
3 = 60 – 40 = 20
4 120. A hollow closed cube of side 10 cm, each
We know that π is constant weighing 200 gm, is made. This cube is placed
3
in water with a horizontal face. How many cm
∴W∝R 3
3 3
of its height sinks in water if the density of
1 1 water is 1 gm per cm3?
⇒ W1 ∝ and W2 ∝
2 3 (a) 1 cm (b) 1.5 cm
3
W1 1 1
3
W 3
3
27 (c) 2 cm (d) 2.5 cm
= = / ⇒ 1 = =
W2 2 3 W2 2 8 Ans. (c) : As we know weight of cube = weight of
water displaced
118. 40% of the students in a class are from India
and 50% are girls. If 25% of the Indian weight of cube = 200g (given) ...(i)
students are girls, what percentage of non- Let assume that cube sinks for x cm when placed in
Indian students are boys? water, Now surface area of the face of the cube
(a) 33.33% (b) 40%
= 10 ×10 = 100 cm2
(c) 25% (d) 20%
⇒ Volume of water displaced = 100 × x cm3
Ans. (a) : Let total numbers of students be 100
So no. of Indian student = 40 but density is given as 1 gm/cm3
and no. of non - Indian student = 60 and Density = weight × Volume
Now no. of girl student = 50 (given) ∴ weight of water displaced
Q 25% of Indian students are girls = 100x × 1 = 100x gm ...(ii)
∴ 25% of 40 = 10 Indian students are girls.
By both the equation
∴non - Indian girl students will be 50 - 10 = 40
100x = 200
So number of non - Indian boy students = 60 – 40 = 20
20 200
∴ Percentage of non - Indian boy students = × 100 ∴ x= =2
60 100
= 33.33% Hence 2 cm of cube's night will sink in the water.
EPFO 2020 (Exam Date 5.9.2021) 16 YCT
Enforcement Officer/Account Officer in Employees
Provident Funds Organisation (EPFO) 2017
SOLVED PAPER
Exam Date : 26-02-2017
1. Which one of the following is the synonym of Ans. (a) : The antonym of the word Enmity is Amity
the word written in capital letters in the the antonym of other words are as follows-
sentence, "The FUNDAMENTAL character of Word Antonym
an individual defines his entire life"? Cooperation Obstruction, Dissension
(a) Productive (b) Essential Dispute Agreement, Peace
(c) Successful (d) Effective Hostility Amity, Cordiality.
Ans. (d) : The synonym of word Fundamental is 5. Which one of the following is the antonym of
Essential. The synonyms of other words given in the word written in capital letters in the
options are as below- sentence, "She was RELUCTANT to sell her
Word Synonyms car"?
Productive Fertile. Fruitful (a) Anxious (b) Happy
Successful Victorious, Completed (c) Eager (d) Unwilling
Effective Imperative, Dominant. Ans. (c) : The antonym of the word 'RELUCTANT' is
2. Which one of the following is the synonym of Eagar.
the word written in capital letters in the The antonym of other words are as follows-
sentence, "She has the habit of using Word Antonym
HACKNEYED and redundant examples from Anxious Confident, Cool
her past even while dealing with the the future Happy Miserable, Disappointed
generation"? Unwilling Willing, Prepared.
(a) Indifferent (b) Imaginative
6. Which one of the following is the antonym of
(c) Cliched (d) Impressive the word written in capital letters in the
Ans. (c) : The synonym of the word HACKNEYED is sentence, "I cannot comply with the QUEER
clichéd. regulations of your land"?
The synonyms of the other words are as follows. (a) Strange (b) Nimble
Word Synonyms (c) Everyday (d) Customary
Indifferent Neutral, Nostalgic Ans. (d) : The antonyms of the word QUEER is
Imaginative Ingenious, Delusory Customary. The antonyms of other words are as
Cliched Hackneyed, Ordinary follows-
Impressive Splendid, Stunning Word Antonym
3. Which one of the following is the synonym of Strange Familiar, Common
the word written in capital letters in the Nimble Ignorant, Awkward
sentence, "She is an IMMACULATE soul Everyday Irregular, Rare.
whose presence makes all the difference"?
7. Which one of the following parts of the
(a) Spotless (b) Excited sentence, "As you know that the ignorant are
(c) Extraordinary (d) Unparalleled easily duped", has an error?
Ans. (a) : The synonyms of the word (a) As you know (b) that the ignorant
IMMACULATE is spotless, clean, unstained. (c) are easily duped (d) No error
The synonym of other words are as follows – Ans. (b) : Article 'The' is not used before names of
Word Synonyms substance and abstract noun in general sense.
Excited Agitated, Elated 8. Which one of the following parts of the
Extraordinary Exceptional, Extraordinary sentence, "After a lot of argument I brought
Unparalleled Peculiar, Quaint. him forward to my point of view", has an
4. Which one of the following is the antonym of error?
the word written in capital letters in the (a) After a lot of argument
sentence, "There is a great deal of ENMITY"? (b) I brought him forward
(a) Amity (b) Cooperation (c) to my point of view
(c) Dispute (d) Hostility (d) No error
EPFO 2017 (Exam Date 26.02.2017) 17 YCT
Ans. (b) : In the above given statement the part "I 13. Which one of the following is the appropriate
brought him forward" is wrong because the meaning of question tag in the sentence, "Anyone can
'Brought forward' is "to move something to an earlier make mistakes, _____"?
date or time' which is not suitable in sentence the (a) isn't it? (b) shall they?
correct phrasal word should use 'Bring round' which (c) can't they (d) is it ?
means 'to persuade somebody to agree to something.
Ans. (c) : The appropriate word "Can't they" should
Hence the correct sentence should be as-
came to fill the blank.
After a lot of argument, I bring him round to my point
of view. Hence the complete sentence should be as-
Anyone can make mistakes, Can't they?
9. Which one of the following parts of the
sentence, "Don't ask him how he is because if 14. Which one of the following phrasal verbs may
he starts talking about his health you" II never be used in the blank space in the sentence, "He
get off from him", has an error? is fond of art and seems _____(suited) to be an
(a) Don't ask him how he is because artist"?
(b) If he starts talking about his health you II (a) fit out (b) bring out
never (c) cut out (d) suit out
(c) get off from him Ans. (c) : The phrasal verb "cut out" is suitable to
(d) No error complete the sentence.
Ans. (c) : In the given sentence the phrasal word "get Hence the complete sentence should be as-
off" is incorrectly used. In the place of "get off," the He is fond of art and seems cut out (Suited) to be an
phrase "get rid of" should be use in the sentence. Hence artist.
the correct sentence should be– 15. Which one of the following phrasal verbs may
Don't ask him how he is because if he starts talking be used in the blank space in the beginning, but
about his health you'd never "get rid of " from him. now all the troubles have _____(appeared)"?
10. Which on of the following words can be used as (a) cropped up (b) come about
a substitute for the phrase, "A nursery where (c) come out (d) rushed in
children of working parents are cared for while Ans. (a) : The phrasal verb "Cropped up" is suitable to
their parents are at work"? complete the sentence.
(a) Sculler (b) Creche Hence the complete sentence should be as-
(c) Dormitory (d) Refectory We were happy in the beginning but now all the
Ans. (b) : A nursery where children of working parents troubles have cropped up.
are cared for while their parents are at work is known 16. Which one of following phrasal verbs may be
as "Crèche".
used in the blank space in the sentence, "No
Sculler – A person who sculls a boat one knows how it all ______(happended)"?
Dormitory – A room for sleeping. Specially a large (a) came across (b) came about
bedroom with a number of beds in it.
(c) came into (d) came forward
Refectory– A large room where meals are served.
Ans. (b) : The phrasal verb "Came about" is suitable to
11. Which one of the following words can be used complete the sentence.
as a substitute for the phrase, "That which
cannot to taken by force"? Hence the complete sentence should be as–
(a) Impossible (b) Improbable "No one knows how it all come about (happened)"?
(c) Impeccable (d) Impregnable 17. Which one of the following phrasal verbs may
Ans. (d) : The word Impregnable means unable to be used in the blank space in the sentence, "I
captured or broken into hence this word is suitable for have to ______(finish) this work before I leave
the phrase 'that which can not be taken by force". tomorrow morning"?
Impossible– Means which is not able to done or happen (a) clear up (b) clean up
Improbable- Means not likely to be true or to be (c) finish up (d) do away with
happen Ans. (a) : The phrasal verb "clear up" is suitable to
Impeccable – Means without any mistakes or faults. complete the sentence.
12. Which one of the following is the appropriate Hence the complete sentence should be as–
question tag in the sentence, "Take a seat, " I have to" clear up" this work before I leave tomorrow
____"? morning"?
(a) shall you? (b) can't you? 18. Which one of the following prepositions may be
(c) won't you? (d) would you? used in the blank space in the sentence, "He
Ans. (c) : The appropriate word "Won't you" should lived a hand ______ mouth existence, surviving
come in the blank. on just a few rupees a week"?
Hence The statement should be as- (a) in (b) to
"Take a seat. Won't you? (c) for (d) inside
EPFO 2017 (Exam Date 26.02.2017) 18 YCT
Ans. (b) : In the given sentence the Preposition - 'to' is Ans. (b) : Lord Curzon was appointed as viceroy of
correct to complete the sentence. Hence the complete India in 1899. He was a thorough imperialist. In order to
sentence should be as- make the administration efficient Lord Curzon
He lived a "hand to mouth" existence surviving on just a overhauled the entire administrative, machinery. His
few rupees a week". forcing policy towards Persea was imperative for the
British interest to maintain British influence over the
• Hand to mouth is a phrase which means "having only Persian gulf and Seestan area. In order to secure British
just enough money to live". influence in that region Lord Curzon personally went to
19. Which one of the following can be used as a that region in 1903 and took firm measures to protect
substitute for the words written in capital the British interest.
letters in the sentence, "There is no meaning to 23. Which one of the following is correct about
CRY OVER THE SPILT MILK since the Assam in British India ?
matter is over"? (a) It was a part of the North-East Frontier
(a) No use of worrying about Agency.
(b) No use of spilling now (b) It was made a province is 1865.
(c) No use use of celebration (c) It was separated from Bengal in 1874, and
(d) No use of asking for along with sylhet made into a Chief
Ans. (a) : The meaning of "CRY OVER THE SPILT Commissioner's province.
MILK" is to express regret about something that has (d) It was a Princely State ruled by Ahom kings.
already happened or can not be changed Hence " No Ans. .(c) : In 1874 Assam was detached from the
use of worrying about" can be used as a substitute for administrative control of Bengal and was made into
the words "cry over the silt milk" separate chief commissionership. As a consequent of
partition of Bengal in 1905, Assam was tagged with
20. Which on of the following can be used as a Eastern Bengal to form the province of Eastern Bengal
substitute for the words written in capital and Assam Under a Lieutenant Governor.
letters in the sentence, "Serving the sufferers is
true YEOMAN'S SERVICE"? 24. What were the peasant associations set up in
Kerala in the 1930s called?
(a) A risky job (b) An amusing job
(a) Kisan Sabha (b) Kirti Kisan
(c) An excellent job (d) An unwanted job
(c) Karshaka Sangam (d) Kisan Morcha
Ans. (c) : The meaning of "YEOMAN'S SERVICE" is Ans. (c) : The Peasant associations set up in kerala in
"An excellent work" hence option (c) is correct 1930s were called as 'Karshaka Sangam'. The Krashaka
substitutes to yeoman's. Sangams were established during first phase of Malabar
Yeeie–B peasant movement in the late thirtees. The krashak
21. Who is the author of the work, The Evolution Sanghams launched against landlordism and acquired
of provincial finance in British India : A study the character of mass movement.
in the provincial Decentralization of Imperial 25. Why did the Congress declare 9th May to be
Finance ? 'Ethiopia Day'?
(a) Dadabhai Naoroji (a) Because the Ethiopians declared their support
(b) Dr. B. R. Ambedker of the cause of Indian independence from
British rule.
(c) M. N. Roy
(b) Because Ethiopia became independent from
(d) Jawaharlal Nehru Britain on that day.
Ans. (b) : The Evolution of provincial Finance in (c) Because Ethiopia was attacked by Italy in
British India : A study in the Provincial early 1936 and their resistance was
Decentralization, of Imperial Finance is authored by Dr. considered freedom struggle.
B.R Ambedkar. This book was published in the year of (d) Because Ethiopian leaders denounced
1825. It is an attempt to explain the rise and growth of Mussolini.
one of the provincial account. Some other famous Ans. (c) : The congress declared 9th may to be 'Ethiopia
writing of BR Ambedkar are as- Mook Nayak (1920), day because Ethiopia was attacked by Italy in early
Bahishkrut Bharat (1927), Janta (1930), the 1936 and their resistance was considered as freedom
Untouchables (1948). struggle.
22. In the context of international affairs, which 26. Who set up the Bharat stree Mahamandal
one of the following is correct about Lord which first met in Allahabad in 1910 ?
Curzon? (a) Annie Besant
(a) He advocated a pacifist policy. (b) Meherbai Tata
(b) He wanted to establish a British sphere of (c) Saraladevi Chaudhurani
influence over the Persian Gulf and seistan. (d) Tarabai Shinde
(c) He wanted England and Russia to become Ans. (c) : Bharat stree Mahamandal was a women's
friends against China. organisation in India. It was founded by Sarala Devi
(d) He wanted to lead a flag-waving mission to Chaudhrani in Allahabad in 1910 with the aim to
the USA. promote female education.
EPFO 2017 (Exam Date 26.02.2017) 19 YCT
27. Which one of the following is not a feature of 1. Officially the British Government was
the Non-cooperation movement ? committed to a policy of laiseez-faire, but it
(a) Economic boycott was intense and successful. was actually a policy of discriminatory
(b) The middle class participated in very large intervention.
numbers in the movement. 2. European entrepreneurs had connections
(c) It was marked by uneven geographical spread to banks and agency houses, while Indians
and regional variations. had to rely on kin, family and caste men.
(d) Along with Non-Cooperation, other Gandhian 3. When plantations were transferred to
social reform movements like the anti-liquor individual capitalist ownership, native
campaign achieved some success. investors were deliberately ignored.
Ans. (b) : In the given option all are the features of Select the correct answer using the code given
Non-cooperation Movement except option (b). Because below.
in Non- cooperation movement lower class participated (a) 1 only (b) 2 and 3 only
very large. e.g. Farmers in Awadh did not pay taxes (c) 1 and 3 only (d) 1, 2 and 3
peasants in Kumaun refused to carry loads for colonial Ans. (d) : During 19th century, reasons behind lack of
officials. In this movement first time peasants economic development in India are as follows-
participated in the national struggle. British policies, the policy was laissez-faire but it was
28. Which one of the following publications was actually as policy of discriminatory intervention.
started by khan Abdul Ghaffar Khan in 1928? (2) European entrepreneurs had connection to banks and
(a) pakhtun (b) khudai khidmatgar agency houses while Indians had to rely on kin, family
(c) Young India (d) India Awakens and caste men
Ans. (a) : Khan Abdul Ghaffar Khan, was also known (3) When plantations were transferred to individual
as frontier Gandhi was a Pasthun independence activist capitalist ownership native investors were deliberately
and founder of the Khudai Khidmatgar resistance ignored
movement (Also known as Red shirt movement) against (4) Taxation by the British, usually 50% of the income
British colonial rule in India. He also started a etc.
publication named as "Pakhtun" in 1928 32. Which social reformer's autobiography,
29. Who among the following was the funder of the entitled Looking Back, describes his
Arya mahila Samaj in the early 1880s ? experiences in setting up schools for women in
(a) Swami Dayananda Saraswati poona in the 1890s?
(b) Swami Vivekananda (a) Dhondo Keshav Karve
(c) Pandita Ramabai (b) K. T. Telang
(d) Ramabai Ranade (c) Jyotirao Phule
Ans. (c) : The Arya Mahila Samaj was founded by (d) Dr. B. R. Ambedkar
Pandita Ramabai with aims to elevate the status of Ans. (a) : Dhondo keshav karve (D.K Karve) was a
women in colonial India by educating women and social reformer in India. He worked in the field of
prevent Child marriages. She also founded Sharda women's welfare. His autobiography titled "Looking
Sadan, it was a school for Indian widows opened in Back' Published in 1936 which describes his
Mumbai in 1889. experiences in setting up school for women in Poona in
30. Who among the following is considered to be the 1890s.
the first Indian to go to jail in performance of 33. Who was the first Director General of the
his duty as a journalist ? Archaeological Survey of India?
(a) Mahatma Gandhi (a) John Marshall
(b) Rabindranath Tagore (b) Alexander Cunningham
(c) Lokmanya Tilak (c) Mortimer Wheeler
(d) Surendranath Banerjee (d) Francis Buchanan
Ans. (d) : Surendra nath Banerjee one of the founding Ans. (b) : The Archaeological Survey of India (ASI) is
fathers of the national movement, and became the first an Indian government agency that is responsible for
Indian to go to jail in performance of his duty as a archaeological research and the conservation and
journalist. Surendranath Banerjee also known as preservation of cultural historical monuments of the
'Rashtraguru' was Indian Nationalist leader during the country. It was founded in 1861 by Alexander
British rule. He also founded a nationalist organization Cunningham who was also it's first Director General.
called the Indian National Association to bring Hindus 34. Which of the following works was not
and Muslims together for political action. contributed by the famous social reformer
31. Which of the following was / were the reason / Begum Rokeya?
reasons for the lack of economic development (a) Ardhangi (b) Griha
in India in the 19th century ? (c) Mother India (d) Sultana's Dream
EPFO 2017 (Exam Date 26.02.2017) 20 YCT
Ans. (c) : Begum Rokeya was a prominent Bengali Ans. (a) : The Aadhaar (Targeted Delivery of Financial
Feminist, thinker and social reformer. She is widely and other Subsidies, Benefits and Services) Act, 2016
regarded as a pioneer of women's liberation in south provides for good governance, efficient, transparent and
Asia. She advocated for equal treatment of men and targeted delivery of subsidies benefits and services to
women. In 1916, She founded the Muslim women's individuals who residing (not only citizens) in India by
association an organisation that fought women is assigning them unique identity numbers, called
education and employment. She launched her literacy Aadhaar, number. Hence option (a) is not feature of this
career in 1902 with a Bengali essay titled as ' Pipasa', bill.
later she wrote the books like Ardhangi, Sultana's 38. Forced labour or beggar is a violation of which
Dream, Saogat, Mahila etc. The Mother India is written one of the following Articles of the Constitution
by Katherine Mayo. of India?
35. Which one of the following is not a (a) Article 16 (b) Article 17
characteristic of the Mughal chronicles ? (c) Article 19 (d) Article 23
(a) They present a continuous chronological Ans. (d) : Article 23 of Indian constitution prohibits
record of events. human trafficking and beggar (forced labour without
(b) They were a repository of factual information payment) While Article 16 related to equality of
about the Mughals. opportunity for all citizens in matters relating to
(c) They allow us to understand how imperial employment, Article 17 guarantees related to abolition
ideologies were created and disseminated. of Untouchability and Article 19 guarantees the right to
(d) They contain brief biographies of the authors freedom of speech and expression.
of the chronicles. 39. Which one of the following statements
Ans. (d) : Mughal Chronicles are rich sources for regarding the Constituent Assembly of India is
mughal administration providing insights on the ruler not correct ?
like factual information about Mughals. It present a (a) The Constituent Assembly was composed of
continuous chronological record of events and also tells members who had been elected indirectly by
us imperial ideologies etc. The authors of mughal the Members of the provincial Legislative
chronicles were invariably courtiers, and the chronicles Assembly.
does not contain brief biographies of authors. (b) The Constituent Assembly held its first sitting
on 9th December, 1946.
36. Which one of the following statements (c) The seats in each province were distributed
regarding an Overseas Citizen of India (OCI) is among the three main communities – Muslim,
not correct ? Sikh and General, in proportion to their
(a) An OCI is a citizen of another country. respective populations.
(b) An OCI possesses multiple-entry long-term (d) The method of selection in the case of
visa for visiting India. representatives of Indian States was to be
(c) An OCI is at par with NRIs in all matters. determined by the Governor-General of India.
(d) An OCI is not entitled to the fundamental Ans. (d) : The constituent Assembly was constituted in
right to equality of opportunity in public 1946 with the total strength of 389 in which 296 seats
employment. allocated to British India and 93 seats to princely states
Ans. (c) : A Non-Resident India (NRI) is a citizen of Seats were allocated on the bases of proportion to their
India who has temporary emigrated to another country respective population. the seats allocated to each British
for six months while the OCI card holders are not Province principal communities- Muslims, Shiks and
citizens but people who want to stay connected and General. The members of constituent assembly had
involved with India more closely. Hence OCI card been elected indirectly by the members of the provincial
holder is not at par with NRIs in all matters thus option legislative assembly and representatives of princely
(c) is not correct. states were to be nominated by head of these princely
states. The first meeting was held on December 9, 1946
37. Which one of the following is not a feature of
under temporary presidentship of Dr. Sachchidananda
the Aadhaar (Targeted Delivery of Financial
Sinha. Hence except option (d) all statements are
and other Subsidies, Benefits and Services) Act, correct regarding to constituent assembly.
2016?
(a) Only citizens of India are entitled for 40. Which one of the following is not a
enrolment under this Act. constitutional body ?
(b) Both demographic and biometric information (a) The Election Commission of India
is to be submitted for enrolment. (b) The Finance Commission
(c) The Unique Identification Authority of India (c) The Official Languages Commission
is responsible for enrolment and (d) The National Commission for women
authentication authentication under this Act. Ans. (d) : The National commission for women was set
(d) It is the responsibility of the Unique up as statutory body under the National commission for
Identification Authority to ensure the security women act, 1990 in January 1992. Hence it is not a
of identity of individuals. constitutional body.
EPFO 2017 (Exam Date 26.02.2017) 21 YCT
41. Which one of the the following is not a feature 46. Which one of the following bodies has
of monopolistic competition? formulated the 'National Student Startup
(a) Large number of buyers and selers in the Policy', launched by the President of India in
market November 2016?
(b) Differentiated products constitute the market (a) UGC (b) NCERT
(c) Product in the market is homogeneous (c) AIU (d) AICTE
(d) Selling costs are used for sale promotion Ans. (a) : The " National student start-up Policy" which
Ans. (c) : Monopolistic competition means monopoly is formulated by AICTE launched by the president of
plus a perfect competition. In monopolistic competition India in November 2016.
there should be large number of buyers and sellers in 47. Who among the following was the Chairman of
the market, entry- exist freedom, differentiated, the Working Group for determining the
products product variation. methodology for construction of producer price
These are the some features of Monopolistic Index (PPI) in India (2014) ?
competition. Hence in monopolistic competition the (a) Saumitra Chaudhury
product in the market should not be homogenous. (b) D. V. Subbarao
42. Social cost is higher economic cost because (c) Abhijit. Sen
(a) society is bigger than economy (d) B. N. Goldar
(b) society includes polity, while economy does Ans. (a) : B.N. Goldar was the chairman of the
does not include it working group for determining the methodology for
(c) cost borne by bystanders is positive construction of Producer Price Index (PPI) in India
(d) Society includes both consumers and (2014).
producers 48. Which one of the following schemes is aimed at
Ans. (c) : Social cost is the total cost to society. It all-round development of adolescent girls in the
induces private costs plus any external cost while the age group of 11-18 years and making them self-
Economic cost it is the combination of losses of any reliant ?
goods that have a value attached to them by any one (a) RGSEAG (b) IGMSY
individual hence social cost is higher than economic (c) NMEW (d) RMK
cost because the bystanders of social is positive. Ans. (a) : The Rajiv Gandhi Scheme for Empowerment
43. Cess on coal at ` 100 per ton is a type of of Adolescent Girls (RGSEAG) also known as SABLA
(a) carbon tax is a centrally sponsored program of the Government of
(b) carbon subsidy India under the Ministry of women and child
(c) carbon incentive for technology Development. The Scheme is aimed at all-round
(d) society includes both consumers and producers development of adolescent girl in the age group of 11-
18years and making them self-reliant .
Ans. (a) : Cess on coal at `100 per ton is a type of
carbon tax. A carbon tax is a fee for making user of 49. Panchayats (Extension to the Scheduled Areas)
fossil fuels pay for climate damage. Act, 1996 permits self-governance of natural
resources by
44. Core inflation is different from headline
inflation because the former (a) Gram Sabha
(a) ignores articles of volatile nature in the price (b) Gram Panchayat
index (c) the Chaiman of Gram Panchayat
(b) considers articles of volatile nature in the (d) forest dwellers of a village situated in the
price index areas mentioned in the Fifth Sechedule of the
Constitution of India
(c) is not based on commodity price index
(d) considers only core items of consumption in Ans. (a) : Panchayats Extension to Scheduled Areas
the price index (PESA) Act, 1996 is a law enacted by Government of India
for ensuring self governance through traditional gram
Ans. (a) : Headline inflation reefers to the change in sabhas for people living in the scheduled areas of India.
value of all goods in the basket while in calculating core
50. Which one of the following countries is not a
inflation we excludes food and fuel items from headline
member of WTO?
inflation, that means in core inflation we ignores articles
(a) Japan (b) China
that are volatile in nature in the price index.
(c) Iran (d) Russia
45. Who among the following is the author of the
Ans. (c) : In the given option Iran is not a member
book, choice of Techniques?
country of WTO. Iran has an observer status at world
(a) A. K. Sen trade organisation (WTO) since 2005.
(b) K. N. Raj
51. A Stand-Up enterprise can be established in
(c) V. K. R. V. Rao
1. farming sector
(d) Sukhamoy Chakravarty
2. manufacturing sector
Ans. (a) : The book "Choice of Techniques" is authored 3. service sector
by economist Amartya Kumar Sen. 4. trading sector
EPFO 2017 (Exam Date 26.02.2017) 22 YCT
Select the correct answer using the code given 55. Standup India programme envisages each bank
below. branch to give loan between `10 lakh to ` 100
(a) 1, 2 and 4 (b) 1, 3 and 4 lakh
(c) 1, 2 and 3 (d) 2, 3 and 4 1. to at least one SC/ST borrower
Ans. (d) : The Government of India launched the Stand 2. to at least one woman borrow
up India scheme in 2016 as part of efforts to supports 3. to at least one rural unemployed youth
entrepreneurship among women and scheduled caste borrower
and scheduled tribe communities. In this scheme the Select the correct answer using the code given
enterprise can be set up in either of these sectors - below.
Manufacturing services, agri-allied activities (not (a) 1 only (b) 2 and 3
farming sector) or trading. (c) 1 and 3 (d) 1 and 2
52. Who among the following were conferred with Ans. (d) : Stand up India Scheme facilitates bank loan
Rajiv Gandhi Khel Ratna Award for the year between 10 lakh and 1 crore to at least one scheduled
2016? caste (SC) or scheduled tribe (ST) borrower and at least
1. Jitu Rai one women borrower per bank branch for setting up a
2. Dipa Karmakar Greenfield enterprise.
3. P. V. Sindhu 56. In case of gold, revenue is recognized in the
4. Sakshi Malik accounting period in which the gold is
Select the correct answer using the code given (a) delivered (b) sold
below. (c) mined (d) identified to be mined
(a) 2 and 3 only (b) 2, 3 and 4 only
Ans. (c) : In case of gold, revenue is recognised in the
(c) 1 and 4 only (d) 1, 2, 3 and 4 accounting period in which the gold is mined.
Ans. (d) : The Rajiv Gandhi khel Ratna Award which is
57. As per the traditional approach, the expense to
now known as Major Dhyan Chand Khel Ratna Award.
be matched with revenue is based on
It is the highest sporting honour of India. In 2016, PV
Sindhu, Dipa Karmakar, Jitu Rai and Sakshi Malik were (a) original cost (b) opportunity cost
conferred with this award while in 2022 Sharath Kamal (c) replacement cost (d) cash cost
is sole recipient of Dhyan Chand Khel Award. Ans. (a) : As per traditional approach, the expense to be
53. ISRO is August 2016 successfully test launched matched with revenue is based on original cost.
Supersonic Combustion Ramjet (Scramjet) 58. Preliminary expenditure the examples of
Engine. Which of the Following statements (a) capital expenditure
with regard to Scramjet Engine is/are correct ? (b) capital gain
1. It can efficiently operate both in subsonic (c) deferred revenue expenditure
and supersonic combustor modes. (d) revenue expenditure / expense
2. India is the first country to demonstrate the Ans. (c) : Revenue expenditures, which are likely to
flight testing of a Scramjet Engine.
give benefit for more than one accounting period are
Select the correct answer using the code given termed as differed revenue expenditure. e.g. preliminary
below. expenses, the Purchase of building, plant and machinery
(a) 1 only (b) 2 only etc.
(c) Both 1 and 2 (d) Neither 1 nor 2 Hence, Preliminary expenditure falls in the category of
Ans. (a) : A Scramjet engine is an improvement over deferred revenue expenditure.
the ramjet engine as it efficiently operates at hypersonic 59. Depreciation of fixed assets is an example of
speeds and allows supersonic combustion. It can
(a) deferred revenue expenditure
efficiently operate both in subsonic and supersonic
combustor modes. The Russia is the first country to (b) capital expenditure
demonstrate the flight testing of a scramjet engine. (c) capital gain
54. Starup Hubs are agreed to be set up in (d) revenue expenditure/expense
1. IIITs Ans. (d) : If the benefit of expenditure extends up to
2. IISERs one accounting period then it is termed as revenue
3. NITs expenditure e.g. expenditure incurred on day to day
conduct of business, depreciation of fixed assets etc
4. Central Universities
falls in the category of revenue expenditure.
Select the correct answer using the code given
below. 60. In the context of accounting, the term IFRS
(a) 1, 2 and 3 (b) 1 and 4 only stands for
(c) 3 and 4 only (d) 1, 3 and 4 (a) International Financial Reporting Standards
(b) Indian Financial Reporting Standards
Ans. (a) : The Startup Hubs is a virtual online platform
for all stockholders of the entrepreneurial ecosystem in (c) Indian Financial Reporting System
India, launched by Government of India with aim to (d) International Financial Reporting System
make startup succeed. The startup hubs are agreed to be Ans. (a) : In the context of accounting, the term IFRS
setup at NITs, IITs, IISERs and NIPERs. stands for international financial reporting standards.
EPFO 2017 (Exam Date 26.02.2017) 23 YCT
61. From the information given below, calculate 66. Consider the following information :
the sum insurable : Rate of gross profit–25% on cost of goods sold
Date of fire –0.1.03.2016 Sales – ` 20,00,000
Turnover from 01.03.2015 to 29.02.2016– Which one of the following is the amount of
`88,00,000 Agreed GP ratio–20% Special for gross profit?
the increase of turnover by 10% (a) `5,00,00 (b) `6,25,000
(a) ` 19,36,000 (b) `48,40,000
(c) `3,75,000 (d) `4,00,000
(c) `10,32,000 (d) `24,20,000
Ans. (d) : Sales = 20,00,000
Turn over × Agreed GP
Ans. (a) : Insurable sum = 20, 00, 000 × 100
100 C.P. =
125
88, 00, 000 × 20 = 1,600,000
=
100 Profit = 20,00,000 – 1,600,000 = 4,00,000
= 1,760000 67. Branch Account under Debtors System is
Total insurable sum = Insurable sum + special
(a) Real Account (b) Personal Account
circumstance clause (increase of turnover by 10%)
(c) Nominal Account (d) Liability Account
1, 760000 ×110
= = 1936000 Ans. (c) : Branch account under debtor's system is
100 termed as nominal account.
62. Income and Expenditure Account is 68. The cost of electric power should be
(a) Real Account (b) Personal Account apportioned over different departments
(c) Nominal Account (d) Capital Account according to
Ans. (c) : The accounts connected with losses (a) horsepower of motors
expenditure, income or gain are termed as "Nominal (b) number of light points
accounts". It is used to keep track of financial
(c) horsepower multiplied by machine hours
transactions over a set period of time.
(d) Machine hours
63. Legacies are generally
(a) capitalized and taken to Balance Sheet Ans. (c) : The cost price of electric power should be
(b) treated as income apportioned over different department by multiplication
(c) treated as expenditure of horsepower to the machine hours.
(d) capitalized and taken to Suspense Account 69. Under which Schedule of the Companies Act,
Ans. (a) : A legacy is money or property which 2013, the formats of financial statements are
received as per the will of a deceased person. The prescribed ?
legacies are generally capitalised and taken to balance (a) Schedule I (b) Schedule II
sheet. (c) Schedule III (d) Schedule IV
64. The abnormal loss on consignment is credited Ans. (c) : The formats of financial statements, are
to prescribed in schedule-III of the companies act 2013.
(a) Profit and Loss Account 70. In the absence of any provision in the
(b) Consignee's Account partnership agreement, profits and losses are
(c) Consignment Account shared by the partners
(d) Income and Expenditure Account (a) in the ratio of the capital of partners
Ans. (c) : The abnormal loss on consignment is credited (b) equally
to consignment account. Consignment account is an (c) in the ratio of loans given by them to the
account for goods that is sent to a person or company partnership firm
that is not the owner but is responsible for selling them
(d) in the ratio of the initial capital introduced by
or retuning them to the owner if they are not sold.
the partners
If they are not sold.
The value of goods that are sent on consignment are Ans. (b) : In the absence of any provision in partnership
charged to the consignment account. agreement, profits and losses are shared by the partners
65. When goods are purchased for the Joint equally.
Venture, the amount is debited to 71. Works Committee, Safety Committee and
(a) Purchase Account Canteen Management Committee are the
(b) Joint Venture Account examples of
(c) Venturer's Capital Account (a) workers' participation in management
(d) Profit and Loss Account (b) workers' education schemes
Ans. (b) : If goods are purchased for the joint venture, (c) workers' cooperatives
then the amount is debited to joint venture account. (d) workers' suggestion schemes
EPFO 2017 (Exam Date 26.02.2017) 24 YCT
Ans. (a) : Works committee, safety committee and 74. Which one of the following is the process in
canteen management committee are the examples of which representatives of workmen and
worker's participation in management. Worker's employer involved in an industrial dispute are
brought together before a third person or
participation in management is a process by which
group of persons who facilitates / facilitate
subordinate employees either individually or collectedly through mediation to reach a mutually
become involved in one or more aspects of satisfactory agreement ?
organizational decision making within the enterprises. (a) Arbitration
72. Which one of the following is not part of the (b) Adjudication
aims and purposes of the ILO as per (c) Conciliation
Philadelphia Declaration ? (d) Collective negotiation
(a) Labour is not a commodity. Ans. (c) : In the Process of conciliation, the
(b) Freedom of expression and of association are representatives, of workmen and employer involved on an
essential to sustained progress. industrial dispute, they are brought together before a third
(c) Poverty anywhere constitutes danger to person or a group of persons who facilitates through
prosperity everywhere. mediation to reach a mutually satisfactory agreement.
(d) The was against want requires to be carried 75. Questions relating to the application or
on with unrelenting vigour within each nation interpretation of a standing order certified
and is solely the responsibility of the under the Industrial Employment (Standing
Orders) Act, 1946 may be referred to
government.
(a) Industrial Tribunal
Ans. (d) : The general conference of the International (b) Labour Commissioner
labour organisation meeting in it's twenty sixth session (c) Labour Court
in Philadelphia, which is known as Philadelphia (d) Industrial Employment Court
declaration, the aim and purpose of this declaration as
Ans. (c) : The Question related to the application or
follows- interpretational of a standing order certified under the
1) Labour is not a commodity industrial Employment (Standing orders) Act 1946,
2) Freedom of expression and of association are refers to labour court.
essential to sustained progress 76. A union whose membership may cover workers
3) Poverty any where constitutes a danger to prosperity employed in many industries, employment and
everywhere. crafts is known as
4) The war against want requires to be carried on with (a) industrial union
unrelenting vigour with each nation, and by (b) general union
continuous a concerted international effort in which (c) craft union
the representatives of workers and employers (d) region-cum-industry level union
enjoying equal status with those of governments, Ans. (b) : A general union is a trade union which
join with them in free discussion and democratic represents workers from all industries and companies
decision with a view to promotion of the common rather than just one organisation or a particular sector as
welfare hence option (d) is not correct as per ILO, in a craft union or industrial Union.
Philadelphia declaration. 77. Which one of the following perspectives of
73. Which one of the following is an exception from industrial relations is based on the assumption
the five functional types of unionism identified that both the parties strive (and have
Robert Hoxie ? opportunity) to exercise economic (wages and
benefits) as well as political (control) power?
(a) Business Unionism
(a) Pluralistic perspective
(b) Predatory Unionism (b) Unitary perspective
(c) Revolutionary Unionism (c) Radical Perspective
(d) Evolutionary Unionism (d) Trusteeship Perspective
Ans. (d) : Robert F. Hoxie was the prof. of Economics Ans. (a) : The pluralistic perspective views the
at the university of Chicago. He gave the "theory of employing organization as a coalition of individuals and
trade unionism" Hoxie classified unions in following groups with diverse objectives, values and interests. In
categories– this method, it is assume that, both parties strive (and
1. Business Unionism have opportunity) to exercise economic (wages and
benefits) as well as political (control) power.
2. Friendly or uplift unionism
3. Revolutionary Unionism 78. The provision of workers, participation in
management of industries is provided under
4. Predatory Unionism and (a) Article 39A of the Constitution of India
5. Dependent Unionism. (b) Article 43A of the Constitution of India
Hence Evolutionary Unionism is not the part of his (c) Article 42 of the Constitution of India
classification. (d) Article 43B of the Constitution of India
EPFO 2017 (Exam Date 26.02.2017) 25 YCT
Ans. (b) : Article-43A of Indian constitution provides 82. Who among the following can be appointed as
worker's participation in management of industries the Chairman of the Central Advisory Board
while Article-43B deals with promotion of co-operative constituted by the Central Government under
societies. the Minimum Wages Act, 1948?
Article-39A, provides free legal aid to the poor and (a) One of the independent members of the Board
weaker sections of societies and Article-42 seeks to (b) One of the employers' represem-tatives of the
ensure humane work condition and provide for Board
maternity reliefs. (c) One of the employees' represent-tatives of the
79. Which one of the following is not a trade union Board
security measure ? (d) A functionary of the Central Government
(a) Closed shop system nominated by the Government
(b) Agency shop system Ans. (a) : As per minimum wages Act-1948. Any
(c) Open shop system independent members of the board can be appointed as
the chairman of the central advisory Board constituted
(d) Union shop system
by the central government.
Ans. (c) : A Union security agreement is a contractual 83. Which one of the following comes under the
agreement, usually part of a union collective bargaining 'State List' under the Seventh Schedule of the
agreement, in which an employer and trade or labour Constitution of India ?
union agree on the extent to which the union may (a) Relief of the disabled and unemployable
compel employees to join the union and whether the
(b) Regulation of labour and safety in mines
employer will collect dues, fees, and assessment on
behalf of the union. (c) Regulation and control of manufacture,
supply and distribution of salt
Various types of security agreements exists among
them more common are as follows- (d) Social security and social insurance
• Closed shop Ans. (a) : In the given options entery-9 of state list
under seventh schedule provides "Relief of disabled and
• Union shop unemployable".
• Agency Shop 84. The assumption that "man is selfish and self-
Hence- open shop system in not a trade union security centered, and always tries to achieve his own
measure. ends even at the cost of others" explains which
80. Which one of the following is statutory theory of labour welfare?
machinery functioning at the central level? (a) Placating theory
(a) Central Implementation and Evaluation (b) Police theory
Committee (c) Religious theory
(b) Central Board for Workers' Education (d) Philanthropic theory
(c) Standing Labour Committee Ans. (b) : The policing theory of labour welfare based
(d) Employee's State Insurance Corporation on the assumption the human being is so much selfish
Ans. (d) : Employees' state insurance corporation, and always tries to achieve his own ends even at the
works under ministry of labour and Employment, GOI. cost of others.
It was established by the parliament by the 85. Dr. Aykroyd's formula is associated with
promulgation of Employee's state insurance act 1948 determination of
(ESI Act 1948). (a) fair wage (b) minimum wage
Hence- In above given options, it is statutory machinery (c) living wage (d) real wage
functioning at the central level. Ans. (b) : Dr. Aykroyd's formula is associated with
81. Which one of the following explains the 'citizen determination of minimum wage. Dr. Aykroyd's was a
concept' of labour? nutritionist and first director of the department of
(a) Labour is largely regarded by the employers nutrition, food and Agricultural organization or FAO, as
as operating organizations in industry. per Aykroyd's formula, which were based on the food
(b) Labour is affected by the law of demand and and clothing requirements the minimum monthly
supply. payment for a government employee in India is
(c) Labour has a right to be consulted in regard to recommended to be fixed at 18000 per month.
the terms and conditions under which they are 86. "Everyone as a member of the society has the
supposed to work. right to social security, and is entitled to
(d) Labour is a cog in the machine. realization through national efforts and
international cooperation and in accordance
Ans. (c) : The citizen concept of labour:- As a citizen
with the organization and resources of each
in a democracy has certain inaliable right and voice state of economic, social and cultural rights
determining and exercising these rights same as indispensable for his personality." This
industrial labour has a right to be consulted in regard to statement which is emphasizing the importance
the terms and conditions under which they are supposed of social security has been expressed in which
to work. of the following ?
EPFO 2017 (Exam Date 26.02.2017) 26 YCT
(a) Universal Declaration of Human Rights Ans. (d) : Pradhan Mantri Suraksha Bima Yojana is a
(b) Philadelphia Declaration of the ILO government backed accident insurance scheme in India.
(c) Report of the First National Commission on The scheme is available to people between 18 to 70
Labour years of age with bank accounts, it has an annual
(d) Directive Principles of State Policy of the premium of `20 and in case of death or full disability
Indian Constitution the payment to the nominee will be 2,00,000 and in case
Ans. (a) : The above statement which is emphasizing of partial permanent disability Rs. 1,00,000
the importance of social security has been expressed in Directions :
Universal Delaration of Human Rights. The following two (2) items consist of two
87. For the first in India, medical benefit as a non- statements, statement I and statement II.
cash benefit was provided under Examine these two statements carefully and select
(a) the Emplyess' State Insurance Act, 1948 the correct answer using the code given below.
(b) the Factories Act, 1948 Code :
(c) the Maternity Benefit Act, 1961 (a) Both the statements are individually true
(d) the Mines Act, 1952 and Statement II is the correct explanation
of Statement I
Ans. (a) : Under the Employees state insurance Act (b) Both the statements are individually true
1948 the medical benefit provided as non cash benefit but Statement II is not the correct
for the first time in India. explanation of Statement I
88. Which one of the following is the correct set of (c) Statement I is true but Statement II is false
contingencies identified by William Beveridge (d) Statement I is false but Statement II is true
in his comprehensive social security scheme? 91. Statement I :
(a) Want, disease, ignorance, squalor and idleness The force on Moon due to Earth is the action,
(b) Want, sickness, disability, squalor and idleness while the force on Earth due to Moon is the
(c) Want, disease, old age, squalor and reaction.
unemployment Statement II :
(d) Disease, invalidity, old age, unemployment To every action, there is an equal and opposite
and ignorance reaction.
Ans. (a) : William Beveridge had defined social Ans. (a) : The force on moon due to Earth is the action
security as means of securing an income to take the while the force on earth due to moon is the reaction and
place of earning when they are interrupted by as we know, according to third law of Newton that
unemployment, sickness or accident. He identified the every action has an equal and opposite reaction. Hence
contingencies in his comprehensive social security both statements are correct and statement-II is the
scheme these are Want, Disease, Ignorance, Squalor and correct explanation of statement-I.
Idleness.
92. Statement I :
89. Which one of the following statements is not It is a common observation that if we place a
correct for Atal Pension Yojana? glass of ice-water on a table at room
(a) There is guaranteed minimum monthly temperature, the ice-water will get warmer.
pension for the subscribers ranging between Statement II :
`1,000 and `5,000 per month.
Heat is energy that flows between a system and
(b) The benefit of minimum pension would be its environment because of temperature
guaranteed by the Government of India. difference between them.
(c) Government of India co-contributes 50% of
the subscriber's contribution or `1,000 per Ans. (a) : If we place a glass of ice water on a table at
annum, whichever is lower. room temperature, then the ice-water will get warmer
because heat energy flows between a system and its
(d) It is applicable to all citizens of India aged environment due to temperature difference between
above 40 years. them. Hence both statements are correct and statement-
Ans. (d) : Atal Pension yojana is a government backed II is correct explanation of statement-I.
pension scheme primarily targeted to unorganised
93. Which one of the following materials is not
sector, was launched by Prime Minister in 2015. The
diamagnetic at Standard Temperature and
minimum eligible age for a person to join scheme is 18 Pressure (STP)?
years and maximum is 40 years. An enrolled person
would start receiving pension on attaining the age of 60 (a) Nitrogen (b) Sodium chloride
years. (c) Water (d) Iron
90. Which one of the following is the amount of Ans. (d) : Diamagnetic substance are those which have
tendency to move from stronger to weaker part of the
annual premium of the Pradhan Mantri
external magnetic field. In other words unlike the way a
Suraksha Bima Yojana (PMSBY) for accident magnet attracts metal like iron, it would repeal a
and disability cover up to `2,00,000? diamagnetic substance e.g. Nitrogen, Sodium chloride,
(a) `100 (b) `50 water etc shows diamagnetism at standard temperatures
(c) `20 (d) `12 and pressure while iron does not show diamagnetism.
EPFO 2017 (Exam Date 26.02.2017) 27 YCT
94. Which one of the following gases has the Ans. (a) : Indian farmers have been using Neem leaves
highest solubility in water? to stored grains in order to save their grains from
(a) Chlorine (b) Ammonia insects. Neem leaves are an excellent dettent against
(c) Carbon dioxide (d) Nitrogen weevils, flour beetles, bean seed beetles and potato
Ans. (b) : Ammonia (NH3) gas is highly soluble in moths.
water because of hydrogen bonds that take place 101. CD-ROM is a
between Ammonia and water
(a) secondary memory
95. Bleaching powder contains (b) magnetic memory
(a) nitrogen (b) iodine
(c) memory register
(c) chlorine (d) bromine
(d) semiconductor memory
Ans. (c) : Bleaching powder (CaOCl2) is an inorganic
compound. It is synthesized by the action of chlorine Ans. (a) : CD-ROM (Compact disc read only memory)
gas on dry slaked lime It is digital storage medium that can hold large amounts
of data, including text, image and audio, It is an
Ca ( OH )2 Cl 2
→ Ca ( OCl 2 ) + H 2 PO example of secondary memory.
Hence bleaching powder contains chlorine. 102. WAP stands for
96. What is the causal agent of Chikungunya? (a) Wireless Addition Protocol
(a) Non-chlorophyllous becterium (b) Wireless Automation protocol
(b) Nematode (c) Wireless Adaption protocol
(c) Virus (d) Wireless Application Protocol
(d) Fungus
Ans. (d) : WAP stands for wireless application
Ans. (c) : Chikungunya is an infection caused by the protocol, it is technical standard for accessing
Chikungunya virus. It is mainly spread by the Aedes
information over a mobile wireless network.
albopictus and Aedes aegypti mosquitoes.
97. Bio-remediation is a technology which is being 103. Bluetooth technology allows
extensively utilized in controlling (a) sending of files within the range of 10 km
(a) global warming (b) sending an e-mail
(b) melting of glaciers (c) wireless connection between various
(c) ozone depletion devices/equipments over short distances
(d) heavy metal pollutions (d) downloading of movies from Internet
Ans. (d) : Bioremediation is a process of removing or Ans. (c) : Bluetooth is a short range wireless technology
utilizing the pollutants from the particular polluted area standard that are used for exchanging data between
with the help of micro-organism like bacteria, fungi and various devices and equipments over short distances.
also plants. It is being extensively utilized in controlling 104. Which one among the following is not a basic
heavy metal pollution.
function of a computer?
98. Beauty of some historical monuments is greatly (a) Accept and Process data
affected by the growth of certain living
organisms. These living organisms belong to (b) Store data
which one of the following groups. (c) Scan text
(a) Amphibious plants (b) Lichens (d) Accept input
(c) Bacteria (d) Viruses Ans. (c) : In the given options, scan text is not the basic
Ans. (b) : Beauty of some historical monuments is function of a computer. The basis function of computer
greatly affected by the growth of Lichens. A lichen is usually includes input, processing, output and storage.
not a single organism but a symbiosis among different 105. Which one of the following is hardware?
organism like fungus and mycobacterium or algae. (a) power point (b) Control unit
99. Which one of the following has the (c) Printer driver (d) Operating system
characteristics of both an animal as well as a
plant? Ans. (b) : Hardware refers to the physical part of a
(a) Fern (b) Moss computer, example- of hardware devices are - Control
(c) Earthworm (d) Euglena unit, Monitor, Keyboard, Printer, Mouse, etc.
Ans. (a) : Euglenas are unicellular microorganisms, that 106. Two vehicles which are 100 km apart are
have a flexible body and possess the characteristic running towards each other in a straight line.
features of both plants as well as animals. In how much time will they meet each other
100. In order to save the stored food grains from provided they follow a uniform speed of 45 km
insects farmers usually mix with them per hour and 80 km per hour respectively?
(a) Neem leaves (b) Mango leaves (a) 60 minutes (b) 55 minutes
(c) Peepal leaves (d) Orange leaves (c) 48 minutes (d) 45 minutes
EPFO 2017 (Exam Date 26.02.2017) 28 YCT
Ans. (c) : Given (c)
Total distance = 100 km.
Effective speed (S1+S2) = 45 + 80 = 125 km/hr (d)
t=?
As we know:- Ans. (d) : The option (d) is most appropriate diagram
Distance (D) = Speed (s) × Time (t) for the statements tea producing place are either in
100 = 125 × t Assam or in Bengal.
100 100 110. Suppose, the remainder obtained while
t= × hrs = × 60 minute dividing x by 61 is 2. What is the remainder
125 125
obtained while dividing x7 by 61?
t = 48 min. (a) 2 (b) 4
107. The price of an article is increased by 20%. (c) 5 (d) 6
Further, there is a tax of 5% on the increment.
If the article costs `1,331 to the article before Ans. (d) : Let the number is 2
the increase in price? Hence
(a) `1,000 (b) `1,064 2
= (2) reminder
(c) `1,100 (d) `1,200 61
Ans. (c) : Given 27 128
Price of a article increase by = 20% = = (6) reminder
Rate of tax on increment = 5% 61 61
20 × 5 111. What is the maximal number of spherical balls
Actual Rate of tax = of radius 1 cm each that can be placed inside a
100
cubical box of height 10 cm
= 1%
(a) 25 (b) 125
Soln.
If the price is increased by x% (c) 250 (d) 1000
Then Ans. (b) : Given
100 + x Side of cubical box = 10 cm
Increased price = Actual price × Radius of each ball = 1 cm.
100
Soln
100 + 21
1331 = Actual price × Diameter of each ball = 2×1 = 2 cm
100 Number of balls arranged with respect to the length of
1331× 100 10
Actual price = box = =5
121 2
Actual Price = 1100 Similarly,
108. A cricket bat is purchased at 20% discount. If Number of balls arranged with respect to breadth and
the selling price of the bat is `1,000, what was 10 10
the original price of the bat ? hight of box = = 5, = 5 respectively
2 2
(a) `1,100 (b) `1,200
(c) `1,225 (d) `1,250 ∴Required number of balls = 5×5×5 = 125
Ans. (d) : Let original price of bat = x 112. In a city, 80% population eat rice and 90% of
After getting 20% discount the selling the rice eaters are non-vegeterians. Then what
Price of bat = 1000 percent of the population are vegetarian rice
S.P. = C. P × discount eaters?
(a) 7.2 (b) 8
x × 80
1000 = (c) 9 (d) 10
100
Ans. (b) : Let the total population of the city = 100
1000 × 100
x=
80
x = Rs. 1250
109. Which one of the following diagrams is most
appropriate to the statement, "Tea-producing
places are either in Assam or in Bengal"?
(a)
(b) Hence 8% of the population are vegetarian rice caters.
EPFO 2017 (Exam Date 26.02.2017) 29 YCT
113. two vehicles A and B travel with uniform speed the bought number of bottles from retuning 20 empty
30 km per hour and 60 km per hour 20
respectively in the same direction. They start at bottles = = 2 bottles
the same time and from the same place for a 10
distance of 120 km. The faster vehicle B Now he has only 2 empty bottles.
reaches the destination and travels back with 115. If the radius of the new spherical container is
the same speed. Assume that the loss of time to double the radius of the old spherical
change the direction is negligible. If x is the container, then the radio of the volume of the
distance travelled by the slower vehicle A new container and the volume of the old
before the two vehicles cross each other, then x container is
is :- (a) 2 : 1 (b) 4 : 1
(a) 70 km (b) 75 km
(c) 8 : 1 (d) 2π : 1
(c) 80 km (d) 90 km
Ans. (c) :
Ans. (c) : Given
S1 = 30, S2 = 60 km, D = 120 km 4
As we know that volume of sphere = πr 3
Since B travel faster than A 3
120 condition :-
hence B reaches at the destination in = = 2 hrs. If the radius of the new container doubled then
60
& distance travel by A in 2hrs = 30×2 = 60 km. 4
π(2r)3
now both vehicles will start to travel apposite to each 3
other, and the they are 60 km far to each other. Ratio of the volume of new container two old container
D=S×t
60 = (30 + 60) × t 4 / 3π(2r)3
=
60 4 / 3πr 3
t= × 60 minute
( 2r )
3
90
=
t = 40 minute r3
hence vehicles meets 2hrs, 40 minute to each other 8 × r3
hence distance travelled by vehicle A in 2hrs and 40 =
minutes - r3
=8:1
40
= 2×30 + 30 × = 60 + 20 = 80 km. 116. A container is filled with 300 litres of hydrogen
60
gas. The first day it losses 100 litres of
114. The price of a bottle of cold drink is `10. One hydrogen gas and everyday it loses one-third of
bottle of cold drink can also be bought by the volume it lost in the previous day. Then the
returning 10 empty bottles. A person has container
`1,000 and 19 empty bottles. Assuming that the
person can consume any number of bottles he (a) loses entire hydrogen gas in 3 days
buys, what will be the number of empty bottles (b) loses entire hydrogen gas in 10 days
he possesses at the end if he buys maximum (c) loses 150 litres of hydrogen gas in 10 days
number of bottles of cold drink and consumes (d) possesses at least 150 litres of hydrogen gas
all? on 100th day
(a) 0 (b) 1 Ans. (d) : Given the total capacity of container = 300L
(c) 2 (d) 3 Soln
Ans. (c) : Given 1st day amount of gas lost = 100L
Price of one bottle of cold drinks = 10` and person has
100
Rs 1000 and 19 bottles. 2nd day amount of gas lost = = 33.33L
Soln 3
The number of bottles of cold drink he bought for Rs 100
3rd day amount of gas lost = = 11.11L
1000 9
1000 = = 100 bottles
10 Similarly the amount of gas lost in three days -
Number of bottles of cold drink he bought from 100 100
100 + +
100 3 9
returning 100 empty battles = = 10 bottles
10 1 1
100 1 + +
Number of bottles of cold drink he bought from 3 9
10
returning 10 empty bottles = = 1 bottles 1 − (1/ 3)3
10 100
Number he has total number of empty bottles = 19+1 = 20 1 − 1/ 3
EPFO 2017 (Exam Date 26.02.2017) 30 YCT
1 1 Which one of the following is the image of the
Since 1 + + in G.P. object in the mirror?
3 9
and Sum of GP (a)
1 − r
n
Sn = a (b)
1− r
a = initial term = 1 (c)
r = common ratio = 1/3
n = number of term (d)
1(1/ 3)3 Ans. (a) : Mirror image of any object is the reflection of
= 100 that object into mirror when the objects is placed near to
2 / 3 it when mirror is placed vertically then left hand side
(LHS) and Right hand side (RHS) interchanges there
=
100 × 3
2
( )
1 − (1/ 3)
3 places.
Hence option (a) is the correct mirror image of the
1 given figure.
= 150 1 − 119. There persons A, B and C run a business
27
together and their shares are 17%, 37% and
26 46% respectively. Any profit they earn is
= 150 = 144.44L
27 distributed according to the proportion of their
Gas lost in 10 days- shares. to the proportion of their shares. If the
difference of the profits of B and A on a given
1 10
date is `1,000, what is the profit of C on that
= 150 1 −
day?
3
(a) `2,300 (b) `2,350
1 (c) `2,450 (d) `4,600
= 150 1 −
59, 049 Ans. (a) : Given
= 149.99 L Shares of A = 17%
Gas lost in 100 days B = 37%
C = 46%
= 150 1 − (1/ 3)
100
Deference between the profits of B and A = 1000
= 150 L. Soln
117. The area of the smallest circle which contains a Profits ratio of A, B and C = 17x : 37x : 46x
square of area 4 cm2 inside is As per question
(a) π cm2 (b) 2π cm2 37x – 17x = 1000
(c) 3π cm2 (d) 4π cm2 20x = 1000
Ans. (b) : x = 50
Hence Profit share of C = 50×46
= 2300
120. The circumference of a circle is 2π cm. Then
the area of a square inscribed in the circle is
π
(a) cm 2 (b) 1 cm2
Area of square = 4 cm2 2
hence side of square = 2 cm and diagonal of square = (c) 2π cm2 (d) 2 cm2
2 2 Ans. (d) : Given
Diagonal of square = diameter of circle Circumference of circle = 2π
Diameter of circle = 2 2 cm. 2πr = 2π
[r = 1 cm]
2 2
Radius of circle = cm = 2 cm. Diameter = 2 cm.
2 As we now that
( )
2
Area of circle = π 2 cm 2 = 2π cm2 Diameter = Diagonal of square
2 = 2 × side of square
118. Consider the following figure:
2
Side of square = = 2
2
( 2 ) = 2 cm .
2
2
Then the area of square =
EPFO 2017 (Exam Date 26.02.2017) 31 YCT
Enforcement Officer/Account Officer in Employees
Provident Funds Organisation (EPFO) 2015
SOLVED PAPER
Exam Date : 10-01-2016
Directions : The following ten (10) items (items 1 6. Rivalry between the two clans has become
to 10) are on English Language; therefore, these items water under the bridge means
do not have Hindi Version. (a) The rivalry continues
1. What is the indication out of the sentence: 'I (b) It has become a thing of the past
gave him a piece of my mind'? (c) It connects the two clans
(a) Appreciation (b) Warning
(d) It is not forgotten
(c) Greeting (d) Scolding
Ans. (b) : The idiom 'water under the bridge' means
Ans. (d) : The expression "To give someone a piece of
problems that someone had in the past that they do not
my mind" means to speak to someone in an angry way.
worry about because they happened a long time ago and
2. What is the meaning of the expression: 'Blue
cannot now be changed.
blood'?
(a) Polluted industrial waste water 7. Consider the sentence:
(b) Sap of teak wood 'The teacher gave me the book'.
(c) An aristocrat 1 2 3 4 5 6
(d) A costly object where the words are numbered for convenience
Ans. (c) : 'Blue Blood' is an idiomatic expression which of reference. Consider also the insertion of a
means 'A member of a wealthy, upper-class family or single word 'only' into this sentence to indicate
ancestry' and 'aristocrat' means someone whose family a desired emphasis. Where shall this word be
has a high social rank especially someone who has a inserted if the emphasis is to be.
title. (i) On the recipient
3. 'He was hoist by his own petard' refers to (ii) On the uniqueness of the item given
(a) He had problems as a result of his own plans (iii) On the giver
to hurt others respectively (only one at a time)?
(b) He was high up on the pole (a) (i) Between 3-4; (ii) After 6;
(c) He would usually run away from trouble (iii) Between 2-3
(d) He was indifferent to his surroundings
(b) (i) Between 3-4; (ii) Between 5-6;
Ans. (a) : 'He was hoist by his own petard' is an (iii) Before 1
idiomatic expression which means injured ruined or
defeated by one's own action device or plot that was (c) (i) Between 4-5; (ii) Between 3-4;
intended to harm another. (iii) After 1
4. What is a Ballad? (d) (i) Between 2-3; (ii) Between 4-5;
(a) A novel (iii) Between 1-2
(b) A historical narration Ans. (b) : (i) the recipient is 'me' therefore it will be
(c) A popular story or folktale in verse 'only me' i.e., between 3-4.
(d) Musical comedy (ii) the uniqueness of the item given is 'book' therefore
Ans. (c) : A 'ballad' is a poem or song narrating a story it will be the only book i.e., between 5-6.
in short stanzas. (iii) the gives is the 'teacher', therefore it will be 'only
5. Plagiarism means the teacher' , i.e., before 1.
(a) There was an epidemic of plague in the area 8. What is the meaning of the term 'didactic'?
(b) It is a sort of political philosophy (a) Intended to be inspirational
(c) It indicates a happy community spirit like in (b) Teaching a moral lesson
playing Holi
(c) Received as comical
(d) It is presenting the work of someone else as
one's own (d) Sharing an informative experience
Ans. (a) : The term 'Plagiarism' means the practice of Ans. (b) : 'Didactic' means intended to teach
taking someone else's work or ideas and passing them particularly in having moral instruction as an ulterior
off as one's own. motive'.
EPFO 2015 (Exam Date 10.01.2016) 32 YCT
9. Consider the statement : 'The message of peace 13. Which of the following statements are correct
and brotherhood permeated the address by the in respect of 'Stridhana'?
Chief Guest.' Which of the following is meant (1) Various types of movable property gifted
by 'permeate' is this statement? to a woman on various occasions during
(a) To advocate her lifetime.
(b) To spread all over (2) Various types of movable property gifted
(c) To anchor and stabilize to a woman at the time of her first
(d) To leave a permanent impression marriage.
(3) On the woman's death, this wealth could
Ans. (b) : The term 'permeate' means to penetrate, pass
be inherited by her children and husband.
through and often become widespread throughout
(4) On the woman's death, this wealth could
something. Permeate means to spread all over.
be inherited by her natural legally adopted
10. Arrange the following to form a grammatically children, with none of the sons-in-law,
correct sentence: having any claim on any part thereof.
1. Einstein was Select the correct answer using the codes given
2. although a great scientist below :
3. weak in Arithmetic (a) 2 and 3 only (b) 2 and 4 only
4. right from his school days (c) 1 and 4 only (d) 1 and 3 only
Select the correct answer using the codes given Ans. (d) : Stridhana is a term associated with Hindu
below: law. The character of property that is whether it is
(a) 4, 1, 3 and 2 (b) 2, 1, 3 and 4 Stridhana or women's estate depends on the source
(c) 4, 3, 1 and 2 (d) 2, 3, 1 and 4 from which it has been obtained. Various types of
Ans. (b) : (1) although a great scientist (2) Einstein was movable property gifted to a woman on various
occasions during her lifetime. On the woman's death,
(3) weak in Arithmetic (4) right from his school days.
this wealth could be in heisted by her children and
11. What is the chronological sequence of the husband.
following events?
14. What is the number of States and Union
1. First Battle of Panipat Territories in India?
2. Vietnam War (a) 29 and 6 (b) 28 and 7
3. French Revolution (c) 29 and 7 (d) 28 and 6
4. First Gulf War Ans. (c) : There are 28 states and 8 Union Territories in
5. World War I the country in December 2019. Before 5th August 2019.
Select the correct answer using the codes given India has 29 states and 7 union territories (UTs).
below: 15. Which of the following is not true of the
(a) 1, 5, 3, 2 and 4 (b) 3, 1, 5, 4 and 2 Western Ghats?
(c) 3, 1, 4, 5 and 2 (d) 1, 3, 5, 2 and 4 (a) UNESCO declared 39 places in the Western
Ans. (d) : Ghats as 'World Heritage Sites' in 2012
First Battle of Panipat – 1526 (b) It has two reserves and thirteen national parks
Vietnam War – 1955-1975 (c) It has two reserves and thirteen national parks
French Revolution – 1789 (d) ONGC surveys have recently found huge oil
First Guy War – 1991 reserves
World War I – 1914-1918 Ans. (d) : ONGC has not found any reserves of oil or
12. A branch of scholarship that flourished in natural gas in the western Ghats. Rest all the statements
Europe, particularly from the fifteenth to the are true.
eighteenth centuries, and was devoted to the 16. Ayodhya is located at the bank of which river?
appreciation, chronicling and classification of (a) Falgu (b) Ganga
historic and non-organic relics, monuments (c) Sarayu (d) Yamuna
and old texts refers to Ans. (c) : Ayodhya is located at the bank of Sarayu
(a) Archaeology (b) History rivers.
(c) Architecture (d) Antiquarianism 17. The Khilafat Committee accepted Mahatma
Ans. (d) : Antiquarianism is a branch of scholarship Gandhi's suggestion for a non-violent non-
that flourished in Europe particularly from the 15th to cooperation protest against the Government in
the 18th centuries and was devoted to the appreciated its meeting at
chronicling and clarification of historic and non-organic (a) Bombay (b) Nagpur
relies monuments and old texts. (c) Allahabad (d) Kanpur
EPFO 2015 (Exam Date 10.01.2016) 33 YCT
Ans. (c) : On a June 1920, the Khilafat committee at Ans. (d) : A Special Economic Zone (SEZ) is an area in
Allahabad unanimously accepted the suggestion of non-which the businesses and trade laws are different from
cooperation and asked Gandhiji to lead the movement. the rest of the country SEZ where introduced to India in
18. What is Know India Programme (KIP)? 2000 following the already successful SEZ model used
(a) A Programme for children aged 12-15 yearsin china.
from rural areas to make them aware of Developed to create additional economic activity to
different aspects of India boost the export of goods and services to generate
employment, to boost domestic and foreign investment
(b) A programme that facilitates visits of rural
to develop infrastructure facilities.
teachers to different parts of the country
(c) An out-reach programme of the Ministry of21. Which of the following statements reflect the
External Affairs to build closer ties with distinctive features about 6th century BCE
India's neighbourhood Ganas or Sanghas?
(d) A programme for diaspora youth to promote 1. The ancient Indian Ganas were oligarchies.
awareness among them about different 2. The ancient Indian Ganas ware non-
aspects of India monarchical states.
Ans. (d) : Know India Programme: 3. Magadha, Kosala, Vatsa and Avanti were
• It is organizes by the ministry of External Affairs. the most powerful States of that era.
• It is an important initiative of the Government of 4. The procedures of the Buddhist monastic
India with the aim to engage and make the students order (Sangha) were patterned on the
and young professionals of Indian Diaspora in the age Sangha politics.
group of 18 to 30 years Select the correct answer using the codes given
• It engages a sense of connect with their motherland to below:
be motivated and imposed by transformational (a) 1, 2 and 3 only (b) 1, 2, 3 and 4
chargers taking place in India and to give them an (c) 1, 2 and 4 only (d) 3 and 4 only
exposure to various aspects of contemporary India'sAns. (b) : Gana-Sangha refers to a type of republic or
forms of art, heritage and culture. oligarchy in ancient India. The compound term Gana -
19. What is the perimeter of the figure shown sangha has a connotation of Gana- those claiming equal
below? status and sangha an assembly. These were the systems
where the heads of families of a clan governed the
territory of the clan through an assembly. In some cases,
a few clans formed a confederacy where the chiefs of all
the clans constituted an assembly to govern the territory
of the confederate clans. The ancient Indian Gana were
non-monarchical states. Magadha, Konala. Vatsa and
Avanti were the most powerful states of the era. The
procedures of the Buddhist monastic order (sangha)
AJ = 10 cm, JI = 12 cm, were patterned on the Sangha politics.
AB = x, CD = x + 1, EF = x + 2, GH = x + 3, 22. What is the chronological sequence of the
BC = DE = FG = HI = y following developments?
(a) 44 cm (b) 48 cm 1. Decline in the export of Indian cotton
(c) 54 cm (d) 58 cm 2. Cotton boom in India
Ans. (a) : AB + CD + EF + GH = 12 3. Civil War in America
AJ = 10 Select the correct answer using the codes given
JI = 12 below:
BC + DE + FG + HI = 10 (a) 1, 3 and 2 (b) 2, 3 and 1
So, Perimeter = (AJ + JI + (BC + DE + FG + HI) + (AB (c) 1, 2 and 3 (d) 2, 1 and 3
+ CD + EF + GH)) Ans. (a) : When the American Civil War broke out in
= 10 + 12 + 10 + 12 = 44 cm 1861, a wave of panic spread in Britain. As the cotton
20. Special Economic Zones (SEZ) are developed to prices soared export merchants in Bombay were keen to
(a) Generate additional economic activity meet the British demand. while the American crisis
throughout the country continued, cotton production in the Bombay Deccan
(b) Beautify suburban areas expanded By 1862 over 90% of the cotton imports into
(c) Upgrade the facilities in the countryside Britain were coming from India. As the civil war ended,
(d) Promote investment from domestic and cotton production in America revived and Indian cotton
foreign sources exports declined.
EPFO 2015 (Exam Date 10.01.2016) 34 YCT
23. Which of the following are the typical difference (c) To ensure that population does not increase in
between the private insurance programmes the least developed countries
and the social insurance programmes? (d) Develop procedures towards adequate and
1. Adequacy versus Equity timely forewarning on hurricanes and
2. Voluntary versus Mandatory participation tsunamis
3. Contractual versus Statutory Rights Ans. (a) : Millennium Deployment Goals (MDGS) is an
4. Funding initiative of the United Nations Organization There are
Select the correct answer using the codes given light plans which include eradication of poverty and
below: hunger the achievement of universal primary education.
(a) 1, 2 and 3 only (b) 1, 2 and 4 only Also, improve maternal health, combat HIV/AIDS,
(c) 3 and 4 only (d) 1, 2, 3 and 4 malaria, ensure environmental sustainability and
Ans. (d) : develop a global partnership for development.
Private Insurance Social Insurance 27. The term 'Carbon footprint' means
Programmes Programmes (a) A region which is rich in coal mines
Adequacy Equity (b) The amount of reduction in the emission of
Voluntary Mandatory participation CO2 by a country
Contractual Statutory Rights (c) The use of Carbon in manufacturing
Self premium Payment Some schemes EPF industries
bonus paid by the (d) The amount of greenhouse gases produced by
government our day-to-day activities
∴ All of the above are correct. Ans. (d) : A carbon foot print is the total amount of
24. 'Unbalanced' Growth is hypothesized when greenhouse gases (including carbon dioxide and
(a) Expansion can take place simultaneously on methane) that are generated by our actions
several growth routes 28. Amongst the following, who is the latest
(b) Supply of labour is fixed recipient of the 'Bharat Ratna' award?
(c) Supply of capital is unlimited (a) Sachin Tendulkar
(d) Active sectors need to, and to energize (b) Atal Bihari Vajpayee
sluggish sectors (c) Amartya Sen
Ans. (b) : Unbalanced growth is assumed when the (d) A.P.J. Abdul Kalam
supply of labors in fixed. Unbalanced growth is a
Ans. (b) : Atal Bihari Vajpayee was conferred the
common path of economic development.
Bharat Ratna Award in 2015. After him following
25. Which of the following are incorporated in the persons have received the Bharat Ratna in 2019: Pranab
Government approved National Telecom Mukherjee, Nanaji Deshmukh and Bhupen Hazarika,
Policy, 2012?
1. Broadband for all with a minimum 29. 'Green Revolution' in India was expeditiously
download speed of two megabits per feasible in zones of
second (a) High rainfall
2. India's rural tele-density to be improved (b) Moderate rainfall
from 39% to 70% in the next five years (c) Assured irrigation
3. Roaming charges shall be scrapped (d) Higher population density
Select the correct answer using the codes given Ans. (c) : Green revolution in India was feasible in the
below: zones where irrigation coverage was good Thus, regions
(a) 1 and 2 only (b) 1 and 3 only of Punjab, Haryana and Western Uttar Pradesh were
(c) 2 and 3 only (d) 1, 2 and 3 benefited by the Green revolution.
Ans. (d) : National Telecom Policy 2012-This includes 30. What is Apartheid?
providing broadband to all at a minimum speed of 2 (a) An international organization of peace
megabits per second increasing telephone density from (b) A medical term
39% in 5 years to 70% by 2017, and eliminating
roaming charges. Hence, all the statements are correct. (c) A trade charter
(d) A policy of racial segregation
26. Which of the following is one of the Millennium
Development Goals fixed by the UNO? Ans. (d) : Apartheid is the policy that governed
(a) Halving extreme poverty and halting the relations between south Africa's white minority and
spread of HIV/AIDS non-white majority for much of the latter half of the 20th
(b) Develop a new variety of foodgrains which century, sanctioning racial segregation and political and
can ensure bumper crops economic discrimination against non-whiter.
EPFO 2015 (Exam Date 10.01.2016) 35 YCT
31. Transportation plays a great role in any 35. What is the correct sequence of tributaries of
economy. Which of the following modes of the river Ganga from West to East?
transportation has the highest elasticity? (a) Yamuna, Ghaghara, Son, Gandak and Kosi
(a) Air (b) Rail (b) Ghaghara, Yamuna, Gandak, Kosi and Son
(c) Road (d) Water (c) Yamuna, Ghaghara, Gandak, Son, and Kosi
(d) Ghaghara, Yamuna, Kosi, Gandak and Son
Ans. (c) : Transport has an important contribution is the
development and growth of any country. The elasticity Ans. (a) : The cosset sequence of tributaries of the
of rood transport is more than that of other transport. river Ganga from west to east is Yamuna, Ghaghara,
Son, Gandak and Kosi.
32. How does an expansionary monetary policy
36. There are two circles of radii r1 and r2 (r1 < r2).
affect the rate of interest and level of income?
693
(a) Raises the level of income but lowers the rate The area of the bigger circle is cm2. The
of interest 2
difference of their circumferences is 22 cm.
(b) Raises the rate of interest but lowers the level What is the sum of the diameters of the two
of income circles?
(c) Raises both, the rate of interest and the level (a) 17.5 cm (b) 22 cm
of income (c) 28.5 cm (d) 35 cm
(d) Lowers both, the rate of interest and the level
693 2
cm = π ( r2 )
2
of income Ans. (d) : Area of bigger circle =
2
Ans. (a) : The monetary policy of inflation increases the
693 7
= ( r2 )
2
level of income but decreases the rate of interest. = ×
Monetary policy is the policy by which the monetary 2 22
authority of country regulates the money supply. The 21
r2 =
objective of monetary policy is to ensure economic 2
development and economic stability of the nation. Diameter, D2 = 21cm
Monetary policy to either expansionary or the difference of circumference
contractionary. 2πr2 – 2πr1 = 22cm
33. In a medium-size township, the trend of annual 7
r2 – r1 =
immigration is an addition of 20% of the 2
population as it was at the beginning; also 15% By putting the values,
of the population as it was at the beginning is So, Diameter of a smaller circle (D1) = 14 cm
estimated to relocate elsewhere every year. If Now, sum of Diameters = 21 + 14 = 35 cm
the current population is 80000, what is the 37. Numbers a1, a2, a3, a4, a5, ...., a24 are in
likely population three years hence? arithmetic progression and a1 + a5 + a10 + a15 +
(a) 90000 (b) 91200 a20 + a24 = 225. The value of a1 + a2 + a3 + a4 +
(c) 92000 (d) 92610 a5 + .... a23 + a24 is
Ans. (c) : Let initially population, P = 80000 (a) 525 (b) 725
Annual immigration = in addition of 20% g (c) 850 (d) 900
initial population = 0.2P Ans. (d) : Let, a1 = a2 , a2 = a + d, an = a + (n – 1)d
15% relocate to elsewhere = 15% of P = 0.15P Now, a1 + a5 + a10 + a15 + a20 + a24 = 225
a + a + 4d + a + 9d + a + 14d + a + 19d + a + 23d = 225
So, Three years hence population will be
6a + 69d = 225
= (P + 3 × (0.2P – 0.15P)) 3(2a + 23d) = 225
= 1. 15P
225
= 1.15 × 80000 = 92000 2a + 23d =
3
34. 'The Problem of Rupee' was whose DSc Now,
Thesis?
n
(a) Sri Aurobindo Sum of 24 terms = Sn × [ 2a + (n − 1)d ]
(b) Dr. Rajendra Prasad 2
24
(c) Pt. Jawaharlal Nehru S24 = × 2a + ( 24 − 1) d
(d) Dr. Bhimrao Ambedkar 2
Ans. (d) : "The problem of the Rupee" was the title of S24 = 12 (2a + 23d)
the thesis that Dr. B.R. Ambedkar submitted to the 225
S24 = 12 ×
London school of Economics for which he was awarded 3
his doctorate in 1923. S24 = 900
EPFO 2015 (Exam Date 10.01.2016) 36 YCT
38. Under the Constitution of India, which of the 42. Which one of the following formed the basic
following statements are correct? premise for developing the Indian Constitution?
1. The Constitution is supreme. (a) The Government of India Act, 1935
2. There is a clear division of powers between (b) The U.S. Constitution
the Union and the State Governments. (c) The British Constitution
3. Amendments to the Constitution have to (d) The UN Charter
follow the prescribed procedure.
Ans. (a) : The structural part of the constitution is, to a
4. The Union Parliament and the State
large extent, derived from the Government of India Act
Legislatures are sovereign.
of 1935 and this act forms the basic premise for the
5. The Preamble to the Constitution cannot
development of our Constitution.
be invoked to determine the ambit of
Fundamental Rights. 43. The Malimath Committee (2003) looked at
Select the correct answer using the codes given ways to reform the
below: (a) Educational System in India
(a) 1, 2, 3, 4 and 5 (b) 2, 3 and 4 only (b) Criminal Justice System in India
(c) 1, 4 and 5 only (d) 1, 2 and 3 only (c) Copyright Laws in India
Ans. (d) : The Constitution of India is supreme which (d) Public-Private Partnership in India
clearly demarcates the powers of the Union and the Ans. (d) : Malimath Committee war headed by Justice
States. Certain procedure have to be followed for V.S. Malimath former Chief Justice of the Karnataka
amending the constitution. The union parliament or the and Kerala High Courts. The task was to examine the
state legislature are not sovereign but the nation is fundamental principles of criminal law to restore
sovereign and preamble is the soul of the constitution so confidence in the criminal Justice system. This
it can be invoked to determine the ambit of committee began its work in 2000 when it was
Fundamental sights. constituted by the Home Ministry.
39. When the Government ownership in Public 44. What are the disadvantages of Provident Fund
Sector Undertakings is diluted, it is called Scheme?
(a) Privatization
1. Money is inadequate for risks occurring
(b) Public-Private partnership early in working life.
(c) Disinvestment
2. Inflation erodes the real value of savings.
(d) Deflation
3. It generates forced saving that can be used
Ans. (c) : Disinvestment means the Government or an to finance national development plans.
organisation is liquidating or selling its state in a Select the correct answer using the codes given
company. But it will be less than 50% and the below :
government or the organisation will still be in the
(a) 1 and 2 only (b) 1 and 3 only
saddle, calling the shots
(c) 2 and 3 only (d) 1, 2 and 3
40. The Right to Free and Compulsory Education
Act, 2009 provides for education to every child Ans. (a) : Provident Fund is an essential savings that
in the age group can be used to finance national development plans. But
(a) 5-13 years (b) 8-16 years this leaves insufficient funds for the risks that may
(c) 7-15 years (d) 6-14 years occur early in life and inflation reduces the real value of
savings. Hence, (1) and (2) are its disadvantages.
Ans. (d) : Article 21A declares that the state shall
provide free and compulsory education to all children of 45. Besides resistance to pests, what are the other
the age of six to fourteen years in such a manner as the prospects for which plants have been
state may determine. In pursuance of Article 21A, the genetically engineered?
parliament enacted the Right of Children to Free and 1. To enable them to withstand drought
Compulsory Education (RTE) Act, 2009 2. To increase the nutritive value of the produce
41. If the Prime Minister of India is a member of 3. To enable them to grow and do photosynthesis
the Rajya Sabha in spaceships and space stations
(a) He can make statements only in the Rajya 4. To increase their shelf life
Sabha Select the correct answer using the codes given
(b) He has to become a member of the Lok Sabha below :
within six months (a) 1, 2 and 3 only (b) 3 and 4 only
(c) He will not be able to speak on the budget in (c) 1, 2 and 4 only (d) 1, 2, 3 and 4
the Lok Sabha Ans. (c) : In addition to making plants resistant to pests
(d) He will not be able to vote in his favour in the genetic technology also includes making them survive
event of a no-confidence motion in water scarcity increasing nutrients in yield and
Ans. (d) : Member of Parliament has the right to rote increasing their own lifespan. Hence, option (c) is
only in the house of which he in member. correct.
EPFO 2015 (Exam Date 10.01.2016) 37 YCT
46. Consider the following items : (c) They abolish all restriction on imports from
1. Consumer goods and services other Free Trade Areas
2. Gross private domestic investment (d) Each country maintains its own set of tariffs
3. Goods and services produced by the and quotas on imports from outside countries
Government Ans. (d) : Whenever countries setup free trade area they
4. Net income from abroad abolish all restrictions on trade among themselves and
each country maintains its own set of tariffs and quotas
Which of the above items are included in GNP? on imports from outside countries
(a) 1, 2 and 3 only (b) 1, 2 and 4 only
50. Which of the following are the functions of
(c) 3 and 4 only (d) 1, 2, 3 and 4 Foreign Investment Promotion Board (FIPB)?
Ans. (d) : Gross National Product (GNP). The monetary 1. To ensure expeditious clearance of the
value of the total goods and services finally produced proposals for foreign investment
by the residents of the country includes consumer goods 2. To review periodically the implementation
and services grass private domestic investments, goods of the proposals cleared by the Board
and services produced by the government and net 3. To undertake all other activities for
income from abroad. promoting and facilitating FDI as
47. Which of the following statements best considered necessary from time to time
describes the content of the theory of 4. To interact with the FIPC being constituted
distribution? separately be the Ministry of Industry
(a) The distribution of income among different Select the correct answer using the codes given
individuals in the economy below :
(a) 1, 2 and 3 only (b) 1, 2 and 4 only
(b) The distribution of income between the
Centre and the State Governments (c) 1, 2, 3 and 4 (d) 3 and 4 only
(c) The principle of just distribution of wealth Ans. (c) : The Foreign Investment Promotion Board
and income (FIPB) housed in the Department of Economic Affairs,
Ministry of Finance is an inter ministerial body,
(d) The distribution of income between the responsible for processing of FDI proposals and making
owners of factor resources recommendations for Government approval. All the
Ans. (d) : Distribution to the way total output income, Statements mentioned above are correct. Hence, the
or wealth is distributed among the factors of production correct answers is option (c).
such as labour, land and capital. 51. The term 'Dear Money' refers to
48. The demand for a factor of production is said (a) Low rate of interest on housing loans
to be derived demand because (b) Value of money at the recession stage
1. It is a function of the profitability of an (c) High rate of interest
enterprise (d) Savings gained due to decrease in rate of
2. It depends on the supply of complementary interest on housing loans
factors Ans. (c) : Dear Money refers to money that is hard to
3. It stems from the demand for the final obtain (e.g., by borrowing) because of abnormally high
product interest rates. This is because people prefer to save
4. It arises out of means being scarce in when interest rates are high and spend or borrow when
rates are low. Put differently the cost of money becomes
relation to wants
more expensive.
Which of the above reasons is/are correct?
52. A certain sequence of integers is constructed as
(a) 1 only (b) 3 only
follows:
(c) 2 and 4 only (d) 1, 2, 3 and 4 Consider 0 and 1 as the first two numbers. The
Ans. (b) : In essence, the demand for say a factors of next, i.e. the third number is constructed by
production by a firm is dependent on the demand by their sums, i.e. 1. This process of constructing
consumers for the product produced by the firm. The the next number by the sum of the last two
term was first introduced by Alfred Marshall in his constructed numbers continues. Taking these
principles of Economics in 1890 Demand for all factors numbers 0, 1, 1 as the first, second and third
of production is considered as derived demand. numbers in the sequence, what will be the 7th
and 10th numbers, respectively?
49. Whenever countries set up a Free Trade Area,
(a) 6 and 30 (b) 7 and 33
they abolish all restrictions on trade among
themselves and (c) 8 and 34 (d) 10 and 39
(a) They establish a common external tariff on Ans. (c) : This type of number series is known as
imports from outside countries Fibonacci serer 0, 1, 1, 2, 3, 5, 8, 13, 21, 34, .......
So, the 7th term is 8
(b) They abolish all restrictions on imports from
outside countries 10th term is 34
EPFO 2015 (Exam Date 10.01.2016) 38 YCT
53. The Rangarajan Committee on disinvestment 57. Which of the following are the roles of the
of shares in Public Sector Enterprises suggested Finance Commission in India?
that 1. The distribution of money collected through
1. The percentage of equity to be divested taxes
should be no more than 49% for industries
2. Evaluation of Centrally sponsored schemes
explicitly reserved for the public sector and
it should be either 74% or 100% for others. 3. Evolve principles based on which funds are
2. Year-wise targets of disinvestment should allotted among States
be maintained. 4. To develop Five Year Plans
Which of the above statements is/are correct? Select the correct answer using the codes given
(a) 1 only (b) 2 only below :
(c) Both 1 and 2 (d) Neither 1 nor 2 (a) 1 and 4 only (b) 1 and 3 only
Ans. (a) : The Rangarajan Committee on disinvestment (c) 2 and 4 only (d) 2 and 3 only
of shares in Public Sector Enterprises suggested that the Ans. (b) : Evaluation of Centrally sponsored schemes
maximum share disinvestment should be 49% for are not a responsibility of Finance commission.
reserved public sector industries and 74% to 100% for Developing five years plan was the responsibility of the
other industries.
erstwhile planning Commission While other statements
54. The Parliament can make any law for whole or are correct. Therefore the correct answer is option (b),
any part of India for implementing
(1) and (3)
international treaties
(a) With the consent of all the States 58. Which of the following statements are correct
(b) With the consent of majority of the States regarding the International Monetary Fund
(c) With the consent of the States concerned (IMF)?
(d) Without the consent of any State 1. India is a founder member of the IMF.
Ans. (d) : The Parliament alone can make laws on any 2. India's quota in the IMF is more than 4
matter in the state list for implementing the international percent.
treaties agreements or conventions without the consent 3. Finance Minister is represented ex-officio
of any state. This provision enables the central on the IMF.
government to fulfill its international obligations and 4. IMF conducts regular review of India's
commitments economic status under Article IV.
55. In the study of pollution, SPM refers to Select the correct answer using the codes given
(a) Sulphur Phosphorus Matter below :
(b) Sulphur Particulate Matter
(a) 1, 2 and 3 only (b) 1, 3 and 4 only
(c) Solid Particulate Matter
(c) 2 and 4 only (d) 1, 2, 3 and 4
(d) Suspended Particulate Matter
Ans. (b) : The International Monetary Fund (IMF) is an
Ans. (d) : Particulates also known as atmospheric
aerosol particles, atmospheric particulate matter international organization headquartered in Washington
particulate matter (PM) or suspended particulate matter D.C and its Managing Director is Kristalina Georgieva
(SPM) are microscopic particles of solid as liquid a. It was established in 1944, India is its founding
matter suspended in the air. member. The Finance Minister of India represents India
56. Which of the following industries were first in the IMF and the IMF regularly reviews India's
established during the British Rule in India? economic situation under Article IV. Hence, statements
(a) Cotton Textile Industry; and Jute Industry (1), (3) and (4) are correct.
(b) Jute Industry; and Iron and Steel Industry 59. A firm is purchasing two items, both on credit
(c) Cotton Textile Industry; and Chemical Industry on the same day. The credit term offered for
(d) Jute Industry; and Chemical Industry 1
Ans. (a) : During the British Rule in India, cotton the first item is 2 /10,1/20, net 30; and the
2
textile industry (Mumbai) and jute industry (Bengal) credit term offered for the second item is 3/5,
were first established. The first modern cotton textile
2/15, net 30. The declared purchase cost of item
mill was established in Bombay in 1854 and in 1947
1 is ` 60,000 and that of item 2 is ` 1,40,000. If
there were a total of 423 cotton mills in the country. The
first modern jute mill was established is Rishra (Bengal) both credits can be settled on the 14th day, what
in 1856 and by 1947 there were a total of 113 jute mills. will be the total amount to be paid out?
The partition of the country had the biggest impact on (a) ` 1,97,200 (b) ` 1,97,500
the jute industry. (c) `1,96,600 (d) `1,98,400
EPFO 2015 (Exam Date 10.01.2016) 39 YCT
Ans. (c) : Purchasing cost of 1 item = 60000 Ans. (d) : Total factory vohehead rate
Now, if paid in 10 days so, discount = (5/2) % = standard variable overhead rate +
If paid within 20 days then 1% discount Budgeted monthy fixed cost
Max Limit 30 days
Normal monthly output
So, he paid on 14th day
2, 20, 000
So, discount applicable = 1% = 25 + = 15 + 18.33
So, remaining price of item 1 = 60000 – 1% of 60000 12000
= 59400 = 43.33 per labor hour.
Purchase cost of item 2 = 140000 63. Acid rain is due to
Now, if paid in 5 days so, discount = 3% (a) Sulphur dioxide pollution
If paid within 15 days ther 2% discount (b) Carbon monoxide pollution
Max limit 30 days (c) Pesticide pollution
So, he paid on the 14th day (d) Dust particles in the atmosphere
So, discount applicable = 2% Ans. (a) : Acid rain results when sulphur dioxide (SO2)
and nitrogen oxides (NOX) are emitted into the
So, remaining price of item 2
atmosphere and transported by wind and air currents.
= 140000 –2% of 1400000
64. DNA fingerprinting is a technique used for the
= 137200 detection of
So, total amount to be paid = 59400 + 137200 (a) Alzheimer's disease (b) Disputed parentage
= 1966000 (c) AIDS (d) Yellow fever
60. What was the position held by Dr. S. Ans. (b) : DNA finger printing is a laboratory technique
Radhakrishnan, before he became the Vice- used to determine the probable identity of a person
President of India? bared on the nucleotide sequences of certain regions of
(a) Ambassador to the U.S.A. human DNA that are unique to individuals.
(b) Chairman, U.G.C. 65. There are four identically sized and shaped
(c) Chairman, Planning Commission balls in a box, with only its top open. Each ball
(d) Ambassador to the Soviet Union is of a different colour, these being: Green,
Ans. (d) : Dr. S Radhakrishnan was serving as Indian Red, White and Blue, only one ball of each
ambassador from 1949 to 1952 to the Soviet Union. He colour. Without looking into the box, one ball is
was elected as Vice-President in 1952 randomly picked out and its colour is noted;
then it is returned to the box. What are the
61. There are 20 girls and 30 boys in a class, and chances that, in two successive draws, one may
their respective average marks are found to be get the white ball and the red ball - in
55 and 58. The average marks of the entire whichever order?
class are (a) 1/16 (b) 1/8
(a) 56.5 (b) 56.6 (c) 1/4 (d) 1/2
(c) 56.7 (d) 56.8 Ans. (b) : Now, 2 balls are drawn one by one with
Ans. (d) : Average marks of girls = 55, total girls = 20 replacement - chance of 1 being white and another
So, total marks of girls = 55 × 20 = 1100 being red
Average marks of boys = 58, total boys = 30 = Either white 1st ad red at 2nd draw or Red 1st and
So, total marks of boys = 58 × 30 = 1740 white at 2nd draw
So, the average marks of the entire class 1 1 1 1 1
= × + × =
(1100 + 1740 ) 2840 4 4 4 4 8
= = = 568
20 + 30 50 66. Consider the following programmes:
1. Credit Linked Capital Subsidy Scheme
62. Consider an industry with the following
features: 2. Micro Finance Programme
1. Budgeted monthly fixed cost = ` 2,20,000 3. National Manufacturing Competitiveness
Programme
2. Normal monthly output = 12000 per
4. Cluster Development Programme
standard labour hour
What is common in the above programmes?
3. Standard variable overhead rate = ` 25 per
(a) They are related to improving agriculture
labour hour
(b) They are programmes related to Micro, Small
What would be the total factory overhead rate? and Medium Enterprises
(a) ` 40.33 per labour hour (c) They are programmes to improve large scale
(b) ` 41.67 per labour hour industries
(c) ` 42. 67 per labour hour (d) They are programmes to improve the
(d) ` 43.33 per labour hour traditional cottage industries
EPFO 2015 (Exam Date 10.01.2016) 40 YCT
Ans. (b) : Programmes related to Micro Small and 70. Consider the following statements about All
Medium Enterprises : India Radio :
(1) Credit linked capital subsidy scheme 1. It is governed by the Prasar Bharati
(2) Micro Finance Programme. Board.
(3) National Manufacturing competitiveness 2. It was so named in 1936.
Programme. 3. It does not provide DTH services.
(4) Cluster Development programme. 4. FM Rainbow and FM Gold are its
subsidiary channels.
67. SPAM in a system (e-mail) is Which of the above statements are correct?
(a) A message distributed indiscriminately (a) 1, 2 and 3 only (b) 3 and 4 only
(b) A search engine (c) 1, 2 and 4 only (d) 1, 2, 3 and 4
(c) An activity of the user Ans. (c) : All India Radio is a public sector radio
(d) A command initiated by the sender service under the Ministry of Information and
Ans. (a) : Spam is any form of unrequested Broadcasting Government of India. It is a major public
communication sent in bulk (Unsolicited Bulk Email a service broadcasts under Prasar Bharati. It was given
UBE). Its most frequent form is a commercial email this name in 1936. F.M Rainbow and F.M gold are
sent to many addresses. It can be used to spread subsidiary channels of All India Radio.
computer viruses Trojan horses or other malicious Radio started in India in 1920. The first program was
software. broadcast in 1923 by the Bombay Radio Club. It was
68. A cylindrical closed tank contains 36π cubic renamed All India Radio in 1936 and Akashi Vani in
metres of water, and is filled to half of its 1957.
capacity. When the cylindrical tank is placed 71. The famous 'Giri' approach in Industrial
upright on its circular base on level ground, the Relations in India espouses the cause of
height of the water in the tank is 4 metres. But (a) Adjudication
when this tank is placed on its side on level (b) Compulsory Collective Bargaining
ground, what will be the height of the surface (c) Conciliation
of the water above the ground? (d) Arbitration
(a) 9 metres (b) 6 metres Ans. (d) : 'Giri' approach arbitration in industrial
(c) 3 metres (d) 1 metre relation supports the cause of arbitration, According to
Ans. (c) : Since the tank is half fall when placed upright Mr. V.V. Giri (former president), the disputes of labour
then naturally it'll also be half full when placed on its and industrial management should be settled through
side, so the level of the water (when placed that way) mutual negotiations.
will be half of the diameter So, r. 72. In a race, the first four winners are to be
Now, given that Vwater = π + r2 + Hwater awarded points. Each winner's points must be
Vwater = π + r2 + Hwater 5 more than that of the next position winner.
Total sum of the points to be awarded is 50.
36 π = πr2 + 4 What will be the points for the third position
⇒r=3 winner?
69. Data regarding inventory of a particular item (a) 30 (b) 20
of usage in the production activities of an (c) 10 (d) 5
organization are : the quantity in stock is 1500 Ans. (c) : Let points of fourth position winner = x
units and the value of this stock is ` 1,27,500. ∴ Fourth winner = x
(This works out to an average unit cost of ` 85). Third winner = x + 5
During the ensuing year X, an additional 300 Second winner = (x + 5) + 5
units are purchased at a unit cost of ` 95.
First winner = (x + 5 + 5) + 5
Consumption is production processes during
Total points = 50
the year X has been 600 units. Working by the
First-In-First-Out basis, the value of the ∴ x + (x + 5) + (x + 10) + (x + 15) = 50
residual inventory of the item at the end of the 4x + 30 = 50
year X will be x=5
(a) ` 1,00,000 (b) ` 1,02,500 ∴ Points of Third winner = 10
(c) ` 1,05,000 (d) ` 1,07,500 73. Which of the following trends in FDI inflows
Ans. (c) : Total cost = (1500 × 85) + (3000 × 95) are correct?
1. In 2003 - 04, the FDI Equity inflow
= ` 1, 56, 000
percentage growth was negative.
usage of 900 items based on First in - First out
2. From 2004 - 05 to 2007-08, the FDI inflows
= 156000 – (900 × 85) ware positive, but had decreased relative to
= ` 1,05,500 the previous year.
EPFO 2015 (Exam Date 10.01.2016) 41 YCT
Select the correct answer using the codes given 78. Which one of the following software
below : applications would be the most appropriate for
(a) 1 and 3 only (b) 1, 2 and 3 performing numerical and statistical
(c) 2 and 3 only (d) 1 and 2 only calculations?
Ans. (b) : All the above statements are correct. (a) Database
Therefore the correct answer is option (b). (b) Spreadsheet
74. In raising an object to a given height by means (c) Graphics package
of an inclined plane, as compared with raising (d) Document processor
the object vertically, there is a reduction in Ans. (b) : Spreadsheet software application will be
(a) Force to be applied (b) Work required most appropriate for performing numerical and
(c) Distance covered (d) Friction force statistical calculations. It is a platform designed to
Ans. (a) : It takes less force to lift on object to a given analyze, organize and stare information in a table with
height by an input plane than to lift it vertically. rows and columns.
79. Consider the following statements on Global
75. The mean and standard deviation of a set of 16
non-zero positive numbers in an observation Positioning System (GPS):
are 26 and 3.5 respectively. The mean and 1. GPS allows accurate time-stamping on
standard deviation of another set of 24 non- ATM transactions.
zero positive numbers without changing the 2. GPS relies on a set of satellites for
circumstances of both sets of observations, are transferring signals worldwide.
29 and 3, respectively. The mean and standard Which of the above statements is/are correct?
deviation of their combined set of observations (a) 1 only (b) 2 only
will respectively be (c) Both 1 and 2 (d) Neither 1 nor 2
(a) 27.8 and 3.21 (b) 26.2 and 3.32 Ans. (c) : Major financial institutions use GPS to obtain
(c) 27.8 and 3.32 (d) 26.2 and 3.21 precise tine for setting internal clocks used to create
Ans. (a) : Mean of All numbers financial transaction timestamps. Hence, statement (1)
(Mean of 16 numbers ×16) + (Mean of 24 numbers × 24) is correct. In the United States Navistar GPS, 24 main
= satellites in 6 orbits circle Earth every 12 hours. Hence,
(16 + 24) statement (2) is corkiest.
16 × 26 + 24 × 29 80. Consider the following statements:
= = 27.8
40 Cellular technology evolves in stages called
Generation (G), where
δ12 n1 + δ22 n 2 1. A Generation represents the number of
Mean and standard deviation =
( n1 + n 2 ) subscribers; higher Generation has more
subscribers.
( 3.5 )
2
×16 + 32 × 24 2. 2G technology has two standards CDMA
= = 3.209 ≈ 3.21
40 and GSM.
76. A sinusoidal transverse wave is travelling on a 3. 2G technology has CDMA standard and
string. Any point on the string moves in 3G has GSM standard.
(a) SHM with the same angular frequency as that Which of the above statements is/are correct?
of the wave (a) 1 and 3 only (b) 1 only
(b) SHM with a different frequency than that of (c) 3 only (d) 2 only
the wave Ans. (d) : There are two standards in 2 G - technology,
(c) Uniform circular motion with the same CDMA (Division Multiple Accem) and GSM (Global
angular speed as that of the wave System for Mobile Communication). 2 G is the second
(d) Uniform circular motion with a different generation wireless telephone technology. The
angular speed than that of the wave following are the generation of mobile technology - 1G,
Ans. (a) : A sinusoidal transverse wave in travelling on 2G, 2.5G, 3G, 4G and 5G.
a string. Any point on the string moves in SHM with the 81. LAN, WAN and MAN are computer networks
same angular frequency as that of the wave. covering different areas. Their first alphabets
77. The devices that work with computer systems L, W and M respectively stand for
as soon as they are connected are described as (a) Local, World and Middle
(a) Hot Swapping (b) Bay Swap (b) Long, Wireless and Metropolitan
(c) Plug-N-Play (d) USB Swapping (c) Local, Wide and Metropolitan
(d) Least, Wireless and Maximum
Ans. (c) : The devices that work with computer systems
as soon as they are connected are described as Plug-N- Ans. (c) :
play. It in a technology that allows the operating system LAN – Local Area Network
to detect and configure internal and external peripherals WAN – Wide Area Network
as well as most adapters. MAN – Metropolitan Area Network
EPFO 2015 (Exam Date 10.01.2016) 42 YCT
82. A rectangular garden is to be twice as long as 86. The method of communication in which
its width. If 360 m of fencing including gates transmission can take place in both directions,
length of the garden? but happens only in one direction at a time, is
(a) 120 m (b) 130 m called
(a) Duplex (b) Half Duplex
(c) 140 m (d) 150 m
(c) Full Duplex (d) Simplex
Ans. (a) : Let the width of rectangular garden be 'x' so,
Ans. (b) : The method of communication is which
its length will be 2x transmission can take place in both directions, but
so, Perimeter will be = 2(L + W) = 2 (x + 2x) = 6x happens only in one direction at a time, is called Half
Thus, 6x = 360 m Duplex.
x = 60 m 87. A collection of programs that controls how the
length of garden will be = 120m. computer system runs and processes
83. The 'Cloud Computing' technology refers to information is called
(a) Compiler (b) Operating System
(a) A set of algorithms that solves problems
(c) Linker (d) Assembler
using fuzzy logic
Ans. (b) : A collection of programs that controls how
(b) Many computers that are interconnected
the computer system runs and processes information is
through wireless networks and satellites
called operating system.
(c) A distributed computer architecture that
88. SMPS is the acronym for
provides software, infrastructure and
(a) Store Mode Power Supply
platforms just as required by
(b) Single Mode Power Supply
applications/users
(c) Switch Mode Power Supply
(d) A futuristic technology that will use clouds to (d) Start Mode Power Supply
perform computing
Ans. (c) : SMPS - Switch Mode Power Supply. Like
Ans. (c) : The 'cloud computing' technology refers to a other types of power supply, a SMPS power supply
distributed computer architecture that provides transfers power from a source-usually an AC outlet-to a
software, infrastructures and platforms just as required DC device.
by applications/users. 89. USB is the acronym for
84. Consider the following statements for Nano- (a) Uniform Service Broadcasting
technology: (b) Unique Solution Bus
1. It is the technology of creating materials (c) Universal Serial Bus
and devices atom-by-atom. (d) Universal Service Broadcasting
2. Physical properties change at the Ans. (b) : USB- Universal Serial Bus.
nanometer scale. USB drives are commonly used for storage, data
3. Chemical properties change at the backup, and transferring files between device. USB
drives. USB drives come in multiple storage capacities
nanometer scale.
and different parts, each having a unique shape.
Which of the above statements are correct?
90. In a chess tournament, each of the six players
(a) 1 and 2 only (b) 1 and 3 only will play with every other player exactly once.
(c) 2 and 3 only (d) 1, 2 and 3 What is the number of matches that will be
Ans. (d) : Nano technology is the technology of played during the tournament?
creating materials and devices atom by atom and the (a) 10 (b) 15
physical and chemical properties change at the (c) 20 (d) 25
nanometer scale. Ans. (b) : The first player can play 5 matches with other
85. The Large Hadron Collider (LHC) used in the five players. Second player can play 4 matches with
CERN project is a particle accelerator located other four players and proceeding this way the fifth play
will play only one match with sixth players.
on the border between
∴ Total no of matches played = 5+ 4 +3 + 2 + 1 = 15
(a) Spain and France
(b) France and Germany 91. The Maternity Benefit Act, 1961 (M.B. Act)
provides for how many weeks, wages during
(c) Spain and Switzerland the maternity period?
(d) France and Switzerland (a) 11 weeks (b) 12 weeks
Ans. (d) : The Large Hadron collider (LHC) used in the (c) 13 weeks (d) 14 weeks
CERN project is a particle accelerator located on the Ans. (b) : The Maternity Benefit Act, 1961 provides for
border between France and Switzerland. 12 weeks wages during the maternity period
EPFO 2015 (Exam Date 10.01.2016) 43 YCT
92. Which of the following are the instruments of Ans. (b) : For years 1970 – 80
providing social security in India? The population in crease
1. Income Tax ( 50000 − 40000 )
= ×100 = 25%
2. Employees' Provident Fund 40000
3. General Sales Tax For year 1980 – 90
4. LIC The population increase
5. National Pension Scheme ( 60000 − 40000 )
= × 100 = 20%
6. Postal Provident Fund 50000
Select the correct answer using the codes given For years 1990 – 2000
below: The population increase
(a) 1, 2, 3 and 4 (b) 2, 3, 4 and 5 ( 72000 − 60000 )
= ×100 = 20%
(c) 2, 4, 5 and 6 (d) 3, 4, 5 and 6 60000
Hence, the rise of population in same for the year 1980
Ans. (c) : Instruments of providing social security in
– 90 and 1990 – 2000.
India are–
95. Four quantities are such that their arithmetic
– Employees Provident Fund mean (A.M.) is the same as the A.M. of the first
– LIC three quantities. The fourth quantity is
– National Pension Scheme (a) Sum of the first three quantities
– Postal Provident Fund (b) A.M. of the first three quantities
(c) (S um of the first three quantities)/4
93. A man buys apples at a certain price per dozen (d) (Sum of the first three quantities)/2
and sells them at 8 times that price per Ans. (b) : AM of 4 terms = AM of the first 3 terms
hundred. What percentage does he gain or (given)
lose? Lets say 4 terms are a, b, c and d
(a) 4% profit (b) 6% profit (a + b + c + d)
(c) 4% loss (d) 6% loss AM of 4 terms =
4
Ans. (c) : Let a man purchase 1 dozen (12) apples for AM of the first 3 terms
Rs 12 CP of 1 dozen apple = Rs 12 (a + b + c)
=
CP of 1 apple = Rs 1 3
12 × 8 Now as per the conditions
Sold them 8 times per 100 = = 0.96
100 (a + b + c + d) (a + b + c)
=
S.P. of apple = 0.96 4 3
Loss = 1 – 0.96 ⇒ 3(a + b + c + d) = 4 (a + b + c)
= 0.04 (a + b + c)
⇒ d=
0.04 3
Loss % = × 100 So, d= A.M of the first three Terms.
1
96. If the difference of two numbers is greater than
Loss% 4
the sum of the numbers, then
94. For which time intervals, is the percentage rise (a) Both the numbers are negative
of population the same for the following data? (b) Exactly one of the numbers is negative
Period Population (c) At least one of the numbers is negative
(d) None of the above
1970 40,000
Ans. (c) : Let say to numbers are = a, b
1980 50,000
difference of the number = a – b
1990 60,000 sum of the numbers = a + b
2000 72,000 as per question
2010 80,000 (a – b) > a + b
So, b must be negative
(a) 1970 - 80 and 1980 - 90 Now,
(b) 1980 - 90 and 1990 - 2000 One number is definitely negative, but we can't
(c) 2000 - 2010 and 1990 - 2000 definitely say whether the other number is negative or
(d) 1980 - 90 and 2000 - 2010 not.
EPFO 2015 (Exam Date 10.01.2016) 44 YCT
97. A palindrome is a number which reads the Ans. (d) : Sum formula = (n/2) (2a + (n – 1)d) where n
same from left as well as from right, for = numbers,
example, 23732. What is the number of a = first terms, d = difference
palindromes between 10 and 1010? Sum of integers from 27 to 93 (both included) = sum of
(a) 101 (b) 100 integers from (1 to 93) – Sum of integers from (1 – 26)
(c) 99 (d) 90 = {(93/2) (2 ×1 + (93 – 1) * 1)} – {(26/2) * (2×1 + (26
– 1) * 1)}
Ans. (b) : firstly two digit palindromes– = {47 × 93} – {13 × 27}
They are– 11, 22, 33,....... and 99, thus are 9 numbers = 4371 – 351
Now considering 3 digit palindromes from 100 to 200 = 4020 So, Average of sum of numbers from 27 to 93
they are –101, 111, 121, .......... 191 they are 10. 4020
In the same way,– = = 60
67
200 – 299 – 10
100. Consider the following statements in respect of
300 – 399 – 10 Atal Pension Yojana:
400 – 499 – 10 1. Beneficiary must be in the age group of 18
500 – 599 – 10 to 40 years.
600 – 699 – 10 2. Beneficiary will receive the pension only
700 – 799 – 10 after he attains the age of 60 years.
800 – 899 – 10 3. After the death of a beneficiary, his spouse
900 – 999 – 10 continues to receive the pension.
4. No nominee of the beneficiary is permitted.
1000 – 1010 – 1
Which of the above statements are correct?
Last palindrome is 1001 (a) 3 and 4 only (b) 1, 3 and 4 only
So, total palindromes are = 9 + 10 + 10 + 10 + 10 + 10 (c) 1, 2 and 3 only (d) 1, 2, 3 and 4
+ 10 + 10 + 10 + 10 +1 = 100
Ans. (c) : Atal Pension Yojana, a pension scheme for
98. In writing all the integers from 1 to 300, how citizens of India is focused on the unorganised sector
many times is the digit 1 used? workers. Under the Atal Pension Yojana, guaranteed
(a) 160 (b) 140 minimum persion of Rs 1000, or 2000/– or 3000 or
(c) 120 (d) 110 4000/- or Rs 5000/-Per month will be given at the age
of 60 years depending on the contributions by the
Ans. (a) : Lets consider the values from 000 to 299 subscribers, any citizen of India can join Atal Pension
As 300 won't have any 1° in it So, it will not change our Scheme following are the eligibility criteria.
answer. – The age should be between 18 – 40 years
Units position : – He/she should have a savings bank account/post office
Each of the 10 digits (0, 1, 2, 3, ........9) appears the savings bank account.
same number of times in the UNITS position 101. Walking at 3/4th of his usual speed, a man
So, the digit I must occur 1/10 of the time in this reaches his office 20 minutes late. What is the
position time taken by him to reach the office at his
usual speed?
So, the digit I must appears (1/10) 300 times
(a) 80 minutes (b) 70 minutes
= 30 times
(c) 60 minutes (d) 50 minutes
Tens position :
Ans. (c) : Let usual speed of the man is = 5 and time to
Each of the 10 digits (0, 1, 2, 3, ........9) appears the
3
same number of times in the Tens position reach his office = T walking at th of usual speed he
So, the digit 1 must occur (1/10) of the time in this 4
reaches his office 20 minutes late
position
∴ T + 20
So, the digit 1 must appear (1/10) 300 times
Now
= 30
Distance
Hundreds position : Speed =
Time
The 1 appears in the Hundred position in every integer
3 D 3
from 100 to 199 So, the digit appears 100 times s= ⇒ s × (T + 20) = D
Total = 30 + 30 + 100 = 160 4 T + 20 4
99. Consider the sequential integers 27 to 93, both as the distance is same
included in the sequence. The arithmetic 3
S × T = s × (T + 20)
average of these numbers will be 4
(a) 61.5 (b) 61 4T = 3T + 60
(c) 60.5 (d) 60 T = 60 minutes.
EPFO 2015 (Exam Date 10.01.2016) 45 YCT
102. Consider the following statements regarding 105. In an office, 40% of the employees are men and
the Pradhan Mantri Suraksha Bima Yojana: the rest women. Half of the employees are tall
1. It is applicable for all bank account holders and half short. If 10% of the employees are
up to the age of 60 years. men and short, and 40 employees are women
2. It is a life insurance cover. and tall, the number of tall men employees is
3. It is an accident insurance cover. (a) 60 (b) 50
4. The insurance covers death and permanent (c) 40 (d) 30
disability due to accident. Ans. (a) : Let Total employees = 100x
Which of the above statements are correct? Then men= 40x
(a) 1 and 2 only (b) 3 and 4 only Women = 60x
(c) 2 and 3 only (d) 1 and 4 only Tall = 50x
Ans. (b) : Pradhan Mantri Suraksha Bima Yojna is a Short = 50x
government backed accident insurance scheme 10% employees men and short = 10x
launched on 8th May 2015. The scheme is available to So, men and tall = 40x – 10x = 30x
people in age group 18 to 70. Therefore 1st statement is
Women and tall = 40
incorrect. It is not a life insurance cover hence 2ndTall women and Tall men = Total tall
Statement is also incorrect. Rests of the statement are
40 + 30x = 50x
correct. ∴ 20x = 40
103. A and B run a 1 km race. A gives B a start of x=2
50 m and still beats him by 15 seconds. If A Now men and Tall = 30 × 2 = 60
runs at 8 km/h, what is the speed of B?
106. Which of the following were the main aspects
(a) 4.4 km/h (b) 5.4 km/h
of the Gandhi-Irwin Pact of 1931?
(c) 6.4 km/h (d) 7.4 km/h 1. Suspension of the Civil Disobedience
Ans. (d) : According to the question A gives B a head Movement
start of 50 m and A wins the race by 15 seconds. and 2. To take part in the then forthcoming Simla
speed of A = 8 km/hr. Conference
8 × 1000 20 3. Pay taxes for the period of the Civil
8km / hr = = m/s
60 × 60 9 Disobedience Movement
time taken by A to finish the race 4. Release of political Prisoners
1000 m × 9 Select the correct answer using the codes given
= = 450 seconds below :
20
(a) 1 and 3 only (b) 2 and 3 only
Time taken by B to finish the race = 450 + 15
(c) 1 and 4 only (d) 2 and 4 only
= 465 Second
Ans. (c) : Gandhi- Irwin pact of 1931 was a Political
1000 − 50 950
∴Speed of B = = m/s agreement between Mahatma Gandhi and the then
465 465 Viceroy of India Lord Irwin.
950 18 According to this pact the Indian National Congress
= × km/hr
465 5 agreed to stop the civil disobedience movement and also
= 7.35 km/hr ∼7.4 km/hr. agreed to take part in the Round table conference. also
the government agreed to take part is the Round table
104. In a race of 1 km, A can beat B by 40 m and B conference. Also the government agreed to release all
can beat C by 50 m. With how much distance political prisiouness except those involve is violence.
can A beat C in a 0.5 km race?
Hence, only 1st and 4th statement are correct.
(a) 42 m (b) 43 m
107. Which of the following is not an absolute
(c) 44 m (d) 45 m
measure of dispersion?
Ans. (c) : As the race in of 1 km = 1000 m (a) Range
Ratio of distance covered by A and B = 1000 : 960 (b) Mean Deviation
That of B and C = 1000 : 950 (c) Quartile Deviation
∴A : B : C = 1000 : 960 : 912 (d) Coefficient of Variation
∴ A : C = 1000 : 912 Ans. (d) : The Coefficient of Variation is based on
As the difference between A and C is of 88 m in 1 km relative standard deviation. It is a statistical measure of
race the dispersion of data points around the mean. It is not
∴In 0.5 km race it will be 44 m an absolute measure of dispersion.
EPFO 2015 (Exam Date 10.01.2016) 46 YCT
108. A provisions shop-owner is found to mix 25 kg x x x
of rice worth ` 32/kg and 20 kg of rice worth ` 2 + 3 + 4 = 65
35/kg and the mixed rice is sold at 15% profit.
What is the selling price of the mixed rice? 6x + 4x + 3x
= 65
(a) ` 35.40/kg (b) ` 38.33/kg 12
(c) ` 36.50/kg (d) ` 37.42/kg 13x = 65 × 12
Ans. (b) : Cost price of the mixed rice 65 × 12
x= = 60
= 25 × 32 + 20 × 35 = 1500 13
profit required = 15% 111. Social Security may provide cash benefits to
115 persons faced with
selling price = × 1500 = 1725
100 1. Sickness and disability
∴Selling price of 1 kg (mixed rice) 2. Unemployment
1725 3. Crop failure
= = 38.33 kg. 4. Loss of the marital partner
45
Select the correct answer using the codes given
109. The original lay of a rectangular plot ABCD on below:
open ground is 80 m long along AB, and 60 m (a) 1, 2 and 3 only (b) 1, 2 and 4 only
wide along BC. Concreted pathways are
(c) 3 and 4 only (d) 1, 2, 3 and 4
intended to be laid on the inside of the plot all
around the sides. The pathways along BC and Ans. (d) : Social security may provide cash benefits to
DA are each 4 m wide. The pathways along AB persons with sickness. Disability, unemployment, in
and DC will mutually be of equal widths such event of crop failure or loss of the marital Partner.
that the un-concreted internal plot will Therefore, all the given conditions are eligible for cash
measure three-fourth of the original area of the benefit under social security.
plot ABCD. What will be the width of each of 112. If 5 men and 9 women can finish a piece of
these pathways along AB and DC? work in 19 days, 3 men and 6 women will do
(a) 3m (b) 4 m the same work in
(c) 5 m (d) 6 m (a) 12 days (b) 13 days
Ans. (c) : Area of the plot ABCD = 80 × 60 (c) 14 days (d) 15 days
Width of Pathway along breadth = 4 m Ans. (*) : There is an error is the statement of equation
Width of pathway along length = x m (supposed) therefore the commission has deleted the question.
th
3 113. If the radius of a circle is reduced by 50% its
New area = of old area area will be reduced by
4
(a) 30% (b) 50%
3
⇒ (80 – 2 × 4) × (60 – 2x) = × 80 × 60 (c) 60% (d) 75%
4
Ans. (d) : Let the radius of cirele = r
72 × 60 – 2x = 45 × 80
540 – 18x = 450 ∴ area = πr2
18x = 90 r
if radius is reduced by 50% the new radius =
x = 5m 2
2
110. At a dinner party, every two guests used a bowl r
of rice between them, every three guests used a So, the new area = π 2
bowl of dal among them and every four guests
used a bowl of curd among them. There are So, reduction is the area = [(πr2–π(r/2)2)/πr2]×100
altogether 65 bowls. What is the number of = 3 × 100 = 75%
guests present at the party? 4
(a) 90 (b) 80 114. Employees State insurance Act, 1948 covers
(c) 70 (d) 60 factors like
Ans. (d) : Let the total number of guest = x then, 1. Factories and establishments with 10 or
x more employees.
number of bowls of rice = 2. Provision of comprehensive medical care to
2
employees and their families.
x
number of bowls of dal = 3. Provision of cash benefits during sickness
3 and maternity.
x 4. Monthly payments in case of death or
number of bowls of meat =
4 disablement.
EPFO 2015 (Exam Date 10.01.2016) 47 YCT
Which of the above statements are correct? Directions : Each of the next four (04) items
(a) 1, 2 and 3 only (b) 1, 2 and 4 only consists of two statements, one labeled as the
(c) 3 and 4 only (d) 1, 2, 3 and 4 'Statement (I)' and the other as 'Statement (II)'.
Examine these two statements carefully and select the
Ans. (d) : All the given factors are covered by answers to these items using the codes given below:
Employees State Insurance Act. 1948. Codes:
Hence, correct answer to the question will be option (d) (a) Both Statement (I) and Statement (II) are
115. Consider the following statements regarding individually true and Statement (II) is the
the Pradhan Mantri Jeevan Jyoti Bima Yojana : correct explanation of Statement (I)
1. It is applicable to all adults above the age (b) Both Statement (I) and Statement (II) are
group of 18 years. individually true but Statement (II) in not the
correct explanation of Statement (I)
2. The premium is deducted from the account
(c) Statement (I) is true but Statement (II) is false
holder's bank account through 'auto debit
(d) Statement (I) is false but Statement (II) is true
facility'.
117. Statement (I) : The effects of an income tax on
3. The life insurance worth is decided by the consumption, saving and investment are micro
account holder and he had to pay the effects.
annual premium accordingly. Statement (II) : Income tax is an example of
4. The life insurance amount is given to the direct tax.
family after the death of the subscriber Ans. (b) : Effect of an income tax on saving,
Which of the above statements are correct? consumption and investment are micro effect. Hence 1st
(a) 1 and 3 only (b) 1 and 4 only statement is correct. Again Income tax is an example of
(c) 2 and 4 only (d) 2 and 3 only direct tax as the burden of income tax can not be shifted
on someone else. Hence 2nd statement is also correct but
Ans. (c) : Pradhan Mantri Jeevan Jyoti Bima Yojna 2nd statement is not the correct explanation of 1st
(PMJJBY) is a life insurance scheme launched is 2015. statement.
Under this scheme only those adults, above age of 18
118. Statement (I) : Trade between two countries
years and upto age of 50 years, are eligible who have takes place on account of differences in costs.
bank accounts. Statement (II) : Different countries have
Hence 1st statement is incorrect The life cover of Rs. 2 different factor endowments.
taken is predecided and not fixed by the policy holder. Ans. (a) : Because different countries have different
Therefore, 3rd statement is also incorrect. Rests of the factor endowments the trade between two countries
Statements are correct. takes place on account of difference in costs. Hence
116. In an examination paper where maximum both the statement are individually correct and 2nd
marks are 500, A got 10% marks less than B, B statement is correct explanation of 1st statement.
got 25% marks more than C, and C got 20% 119. Statement (I) : Foreign investment may affect a
marks less than D. If A got 360 marks, what country's export performance.
marks did D get? Statement (II) : Inflow of foreign exchange may
(a) 65% (b) 70% cause appreciation of local currency leading to
a rise in the price of export commodities.
(c) 75% (d) 80%
Ans. (a) : Inflow of Foreign exchange may cause
Ans. (d) : Given, appreciation of local currency which inturns may affect
Maximum marks = 500 the country's export performance. Hence both the
Marks obtained by A = 360 statement are correct and 2nd statement correctly
According to question explains 1st statement.
360 120. Statement (I) : Speaker of the Lok Sabha
If A got 360 marks then B will get = = 400 appoints the Chairman of the public Accounts
0.9 Committee.
and as c got 25% less than B Statement (II) : Members of Parliament,
400 eminent persons from industry and trade are
∴ marks of c = = 320 the members of the Public Accounts Committee.
1.25
Ans. (c) : The chairman of the Public Accounts
then marks of D = 20% more than c
Committee is appointed by the speaker of Lok Sabah
=
320
= 400 from amongst its members. Hence, 1st Statement is
0.8 correct. However, the members of Public Accounts
Committee are elected by the Parliament every year
400
∴ Parentage marks of D = × 100 = 80% from amongst its member only. Hence, 2nd statement is
500 incorrect.
EPFO 2015 (Exam Date 10.01.2016) 48 YCT
Enforcement Officer/Account Officer in Employees
Provident Funds Organisation (EPFO) 2012
SOLVED PAPER
1 4. Three sets of data on comparable situations are
1. If 20% of P = 30% of Q = of R, then P : Q :
6 available as under:
R is : Set No. No, of Mean Standard
(a) 2 : 3 : 16 (b) 3 : 2 : 16 Data Value Deviation
(c) 10 : 15 : 18 (d) 15 : 10 : 18 1 9 8 1.6
1 2 12 7 1.2
Ans. (d) : 20% P = 30% of Q = of R
6 3 15 9 1.4
P × 20 Q×30 1
= = R× Considering all the data set together, the
100 100 6 overall mean value would be:
P 3Q R (a) 7.24 (b) 7.66
= = =K
S 10 6 (c) 8.08 (d) 8.50
10
P = 5K, Q = K , R = 6K Number
3 Ans. (c) : Mean Value =
⇒ 15 : 10 : 18 Standard Deviation
1 9 +12 +15 36
2. A tree increases annually by th of its height. = =
8 1.6 +1.2 +1.4 4.2
What will its height after 2 years, if it stands = 8.57 so , nearest options is = 8.50
today 64 cm high? 5. A train travels at a certain average speed for a
(a) 72 cm (b) 74 cm distance of 63 km. Thereafter it travel a
(c) 81 cm (d) 85 cm distance of 72 km with an average speed of
Ans. (c) : 6km/hour more than the original speed. Total
1 time taken to complete the journey is 3 hours.
The tree increase annually by th of its height
8 What is the original average speed of the train?
today's height = 64 cm (a) 36 km/hour (b) 42 km/hour
64 (c) 48 km/hour (d) 54 km/hour
Height of tree after 1 years = 64 + cm = 72 cm
8 Ans. (b) : Let the original aveage speed of train be
72 ×km/hr time taken by train cover 63 km with original
Height of tree after 2 years = 72 + cm = 81 cm
8 63
speed =
3. The sides of a triangles GHL are GH = 65 m, x
HL = 75 m and LG = 80 m. What is the area of Time taken by train to cover 72 km with increases speed
this triangle? 72
(a) 2100 m2 (b) 2160 m2 =
2 x +6
(c) 2200 m (d) 2280 m2
It is given that ;
Ans. (d) :
63 72
65 + 75 + 80 200 + =3
Semi perimeter of Triangles (s) = = x x +6
2 2
= 110 (x + 6)63 + 72x = 3(x)(x + 6)
63x + 378 + 72x = 3x2 + 18x
Area of Triangle = 110 (110 - 65 )(110 - 75 )(110 - 80 )
135x + 378 = 3x2 + 18x
= 110× 45×35×30 3x2 – 117x – 378 = 0
= 22×5×9×5× 7 ×5× 6× 5 x2 – 39x – 126 = 0
= 25× 3 22× 7 × 6 x2 – 42x + 3x – 126 = 0
= 75 924 x(x – 42) +3(x – 42) = 0
= 75×30.39737 x = 42, x = – 3
= 2279.80 Speed cannot be negative, so original average speed is
= 2280 m2 42 km/hr.
EPFO 2012 49 YCT
6. An iron rod of 1 cm diameter and 8 cm length trains are crossing at a double-track stretch,
is drawn into a wire of 18 m length with what is the time taken for the two trains to fully
uniform thickness. The thickness of the wire clear each other ?
would be : (a) 10 seconds (b) 8 seconds
1 1 (c) 7.2 seconds (d) 6.6 seconds
(a) cm (b) cm
21 18 Ans. (b) :
1 1 Total length (Length train S + Length of train A)
(c) cm (d) cm
15 12 = (125 + 75) m
Ans. (c) : Given, diameter of iron rod = 1 cm = 200 m
length of iron rod = 8 cm Uniform speed of both trains (As they are moving in
length of wire = 18 m = 1800 cm opposite direction)
Both iron rod and wire are in shape of cylinder and we = (54 + 36) = 90 km/hr
know that the volume of a cylinder is given by π× 5
= 90× = 25 m/s
radius2 ×h 18
Volume of the rod = πr2h 200
2
Time taken to fully clear each other = = 8 Sec
1 25
= π × ×8 9. Biome. largest recognizable assemblage of
2
animals and plants on the earth, is controlled
= 2π cm3
mainly by :
Volume of the wire = πr2h (a) Biological activity (b) Landforms
= π×r2×1800 (c) Climate (d) Soil
= 1800 π r2 cm3 Ans. (c) : Biome largest recognizable assemblage of
iron rod is drawn into to wire of length 18 m. animals and plants on the earth, is controlled mainly by
Here, the shape is changed but the volume remains Climate. Latitude, air pressure and winds are important
same. factors that determine the climate of a place.
Volume of the rod (old shape) = Volume of wire (new 10. Despite having huge coal reserve in our
shape) country why do we import millions of tons of
2π = 1800 πr2 coal?
1 1
r2 = ⇒r= 1. It is policy of Govt. of India to save its own
900 30 coal reserve for future used and import now
1 1 from other countries for present use.
Diameter = 2× = cm 2. Most of the thermal plants in our country
30 15
are coal based and they are unable to get
1
Therefore the thickness of wire = cm sufficient coal supply from our coal mines.
15 3. Steel plants require large quantities of
7. A 60 m long train travels at a uniform speed of coking coal which we do not have, coking
72 km/hour. It passes non-stop along the 600 m coal is to be imported from other countries.
platform of a wayside station. What is the (a) 1, 2 and 3 (b) 2 and 3 only
elapsed time for the train to entirely clear the (c) 1 and 2 only (d) 1 and 3 only
platform?
Ans. (b) : Steel plants operating in India require large
(a) 30 seconds (b) 31 seconds
quantities of cooking coal, which we import from other
(c) 32 seconds (d) 33 seconds countries because the cooking coal available in India is
5 of inferior quality. Secondly most of the electricity
Ans. (d) : Speed of the train = 72× = 20 m/s
18 generation power pants which require coal and they are
Total length = (length of train + length of platform) unable to get sufficient coal supply from our coal mines.
= (60 + 600)m 11. For calculating Body Mass Index (BMI),
= 660 m weight of the person (in kg) is divided by the :
Time elapsed to entirely clear the Platform (a) Square of the weight (in kg)
660 (b) Square of the height (in meters)
= = 33 Seconds (c) Square roots of the height (in meters)
20
(d) Vitamins intake
8. Train A is 75 m long and travels a at uniform
speed of 54 km/hour. Train B is 125 m long and Ans. (b) : For calculating Body Mass Index (BMI),
travels at a uniform speed of 36 km/hour in the weight of the person (in kg) is divided by the Square of
direction opposite to that of Train A. If these the height (in meters).
EPFO 2012 50 YCT
Directions : Each of the next Four (04) items top keep in mind while framing policy and is
consists of two statements, one labelled as the not enforceable through courts.
'Statement (I)' and the other as "Statement (II):. You (a) Both Statement (I) and Statement (II) are
are to examine these two statements carefully and individually true and Statement (II) is the
select the answers to these items using the codes given correct explanation of Statement (I).
below : (b) Both Statement (I) and Statement (II) are
12. Statement (I): Industrial relations is currently individually true but Statement (II) is NOT
more influenced by the external market forces the correct explanations of Statement (I).
than the power play between employers and (c) Statement (I) is true but statement (II) is false.
employees. (d) Statement (I) is false but Statement (II) is
Statement (II): The forces of globalizations true.
have made competitions so imperative that Ans. (b) : The Directive Principles of State Policy
unions and their tactics like stopping enshrined in the constitution, aim at providing the social
productivity no more hold good. and economic base of a genuine democracy the
(a) Both Statement (I) and Statement (II) are statement is true.
individually true and Statement (II) is the The Directive Principles are merely directives which the
correct explanation of Statement (I). government has to keep in mind while framing policy
(b) Both Statement (I) and Statement (II) are and is not enforceable through courts, the statement is
individually true but Statement (II) is NOT true. Hence, both the statement are individually true but
the correct explanations of Statement (I). statement II is not the correct explanation of statement I.
(c) Statement (I) is true but statement (II) is false.
15. Statement (I) : In order to produce electric
(d) Statement (I) is false but Statement (II) is power from a geothermal reservoir
true. temperature above 180ºis required.
Ans. (d) : Industrial relations is currently more Statement (II) : To drive steam turbines, high
influenced by the power play between employers and temperature steam is used.
employees than the market forces so, statement I is (a) Both Statement (I) and Statement (II) are
incorrect. individually true and Statement (II) is the
The forces of globalizations have made competitions so correct explanation of Statement (I).
imperative that unions and their tactics like stopping (b) Both Statement (I) and Statement (II) are
productivity no more hold good is correct so statement I individually true but Statement (II) is NOT
is false but statement II is true. the correct explanations of Statement (I).
13. Statement (I): Every State in India has a high (c) Statement (I) is true but statement (II) is false.
Court in its (State's) Territory. (d) Statement (I) is false but Statement (II) is
Statement (II): As per constitution of Indian true.
each State is provided to have a high Court.
Ans. (a) : In order to produce electric power from a
(a) Both Statement (I) and Statement (II) are geothermal reservoir temperature above 180ºis required.
individually true and Statement (II) is the The statement is correct.
correct explanation of Statement (I).
To drive steam turbines, high temperature steam is used.
(b) Both Statement (I) and Statement (II) are The statement is correct.
individually true but Statement (II) is NOT
Hence, both the statement are true and statement II
the correct explanations of Statement (I).
correctly explains statements I.
(c) Statement (I) is true but statement (II) is false.
(d) Statement (I) is false but Statement (II) is 16. Which one of the following sets of industries
true. were among first modern industries in India?
(a) Tea, Cotton and Sugar
Ans. (d) : Article 214 of the constitution states that
(b) Jute, Silk and Cotton
there shall be a high court for each state, but it is not
mandatory that the High Court is situated within the (c) Cotton, Jute and Coal-Mines
territory of the state. Hence, statement I is incorrect and (d) Sugar, Silk and Steel
statement II is correct. Ans. (c) : Cotton, Jute and Coal mines were the set of
14. Statement (I): The Directive Principles of State first modern industries in India. Bombay spinning and
Policy enshrined in the constitution, aim at weaving Company was the first cotton mill established
providing the social and economic base of a in India in 1854. The first Jute Mill was established in
genuine democracy. KolKata in 1855 at Rishra. Raniganj was the first coal
Statement (II): The Directive Principles are filed in India and the mining was started during British
merely directives which the government has period in 1774.
EPFO 2012 51 YCT
17. The regional project by name "CASA-1000' Ans. (a) : Threats to the biodiversity of a geographical
(Central Asia-South Asia-1000), funded by area are :
World Bank, pertains to the field of : — Global warming
(a) Eradication of HIV AIDS — Fragmentation of habitats
(b) Roads and Buildings — Invasion of alien species
(c) Electricity 21. Vultures, which were very common in our
(d) Eradications of illiteracy countryside a few years ago, are rarely seen
Ans. (c) : The regional project by name "CASA-1000' nowadays. This is attributed to one of the
(Central Asia-South Asia-1000), funded by World following:
Bank, pertains to the field of Electricity. (a) Destruction of their nesting sites by new
18. The Endeavour of 'Janani Suraksha Yojana' invasive species.
Pragramme is to : (b) A drug used by cattle corners for treating
1. Promote institutional deliveries. their diseased cattle.
2. Provide monetary assistance to the mother to (c) Scarcity of food available to them.
meet the cost of delivery. (d) A wide spread, persistent and fatal disease
3. Provided for wage loss due to pregnancy and amongst them.
confinement. Ans. (b) : Vultures are exposed to the drug, when they
(a) 1 and 2 only (b) 1 and 3 only consume carcasses of animal that were treated with
(c) 2 and 3 only (d) 1, 2 and 3 diclofenac shortly before death. Vultures die from
Ans. (a) : 'Janani Suraksha Yojana' (JSY) is a safe Kidney failure within days of exposure to diclofenac
motherhood intervention under the National Health contaminated tissues.
Mission. It is being implemented with the objective of 22. Who won ne Golden Boot Award in the
reducing material and neonatal mortality by promoting recently concluded UEFA Euro 2012?
institutional delivery among poor pregnant women. The (a) Fernando Torres (Spain)
scheme launched on 12th April, 2005 by the Honrable (b) Mario Balotelli (Italy)
Prime Minister. (c) Cristiano Ronaldo (Portugal)
JSY is a centrally sponsored scheme which integrates
(d) Mario Gomez (Germany)
cash assistance with delivery and post delivery care.
The Yojana has identified Accredited Social Heath Ans. (a) : Golden Boot Award in UEFA Euro 2012 was
Activist (ASHA) as an effective link between the awarded to Fernando Torres (Spain).
government and pregnant women. 23. Which of the following sets of countries has
19. 'Kyoto Protocol', is an agreement signed by only federations.
various countries, is associated with : (a) New Zealand, India. Zimbabwe and
(a) International trade Argentina
(b) Deep sea oil and mineral explorations (b) Malaysia. Australia, Nigeria and Brazil
(c) Clean environment and climate change (c) India. Nepal, Sri Lanka and South Africa
(d) Building common food stock to save human (d) France, Germany, Sweden and Switzerland
being from any natural disaster Ans. (b) : Malaysia. Australia, Nigeria and Brazil have
Ans. (c) : The 'Kyoto Protocol', is an international treaty only federation. There are more then 25 countries which
adopted in 1997 that aimed to reduce the emission of have only federalism.
gases that contribute to global warming. The protocol 24. Match List-I with List-II and select the correct
called for reducing the emissions of six greenhouse answer using the code given below the lists :
gases in 41 countries plus the European Union to 5.2% List-I List-II
blow 1990 level. It was widely hailed as the most (Person) (Company)
significant environment treaty ever negotiated.
A. Steve Jobs 1. Google
20. Which of the following can be threats to the
B. Sheryl Sandberg 2. Apple
biodiversity of a geographical area ?
C. Larry Page 3. Yahoo
1. Global warming.
2. Fragmentation of habitats. D. Ross Levinsohn 4. Facebook
3. Invasion of alien species. Code :
4. Promotion of vegetarianism. A B C D A B C D
(a) 1, 2 and 3 only (b) 1, 2 and 4 only (a) 2 1 4 3 (b) 3 1 4 2
(c) 3 and 4 only (d) 1, 2, 2 and 4 (c) 2 4 1 3 (d) 3 4 1 2
EPFO 2012 52 YCT
Ans. (c) : 27. Match List-I with List-II and select the correct
Person Company answer using the code given below the lists :
A. Steve Jobs - Apple List-I List-II
B. Sheryl Sandberg - Facebook (Head) (Institution)
C. Larry Page - Google A. Jim Yong Kim 1. President.
D. Ross Levinsohn - Yahoo World Bank
25. Match List-I with List-II and select the correct B. Kamlesh Sharma 2. Secretary
answer using the code given below the lists : General,
Common
List-I List-II
Wealth
(Book) (Author)
C. Christine Lagarde 3. Managing
A. Rahul Dravid: 1. Steve Waugh and
Director, IMF
Timeless Steel Nasser Husain
D. Catherine Day 4. Secretary-
B. An Ashes 2. Greg Chappell
General of the
Summer
European
C. Sachin : A 3. Mike Atherton Commission
Hundred
Code :
Hundreds Now
A B C D A B C D
D. Opening UP: 4. V. Krishnaswamy
(a) 3 4 2 1 (b) 1 4 2 3
MY autography
(c) 3 2 4 1 (d) 1 2 4 3
Code :
Ans. (*) : Due to some discrepancies this question was
A B C D A B C D
deleted by the commission.
(a) 3 4 1 2 (b) 2 4 1 3
28. A cultivator has about two hectares of rain fed
(c) 3 1 4 2 (d) 2 1 4 3
land without irrigation facilities. Which type of
Ans. (d) : crops would be like to grow ?
List-I List-II 1. Jowar 2. Cotton
(Book) (Author) 3. Arhar 4. Potatoes
A. Rahul Dravid: 4. Greg Chappell (a) 1, 2, 3 and 4 (b) 1, 2 and 3 only
Timeless Steel (c) 2 and 4 only (d) 1 and 3 only
B. An Ashes Summer 1. Steve Waugh Ans. (d) : Jowar and Arhar are two crops which can be
and Nasser grown in two Hectares of rain fed land without
Husain irrigation facilities, as they require less amount of water.
C. Sachin : A Hundred 4. V. Krishnaswamy 29. Match List-I with List-II and select the correct
Hundreds Now answer using the code given below the lists :
D. Opening UP: MY 3. Mike Atherton List-I List-II
autography A. Buxa Tiger Reserve 1. Rajasthan
26. Why was Justice Dalveer Bhandari in the news B. Periyar Tiger Reserve 2. Gujarat
recently? C. Sariska National Park 3. West Bengal
(a) He became member if UN Human Rights
D. Wild Ass Sanctuary 4. Kerala
Council.
Code:
(b) He was elected to the International court of
A B C D A B C D
Justice.
(a) 2 1 4 3 (b) 3 4 1 2
(c) He became director General of World Trade
Organization. (c) 2 4 1 3 (d) 3 1 4 2
(d) He became secretary- General of SAARC. Ans. (b) :
A. Buxa Tiger Reserve - West Bengal
Ans. (b) : Justice Dalveer Bhandari was elected to the
International court of Justice. He assumed office of B. Periyar Tiger Reserve - Kerala
Judge of International Court of Justice on 27 April] C. Sariska National Park - Rajasthan
2012. D. Wild Ass Sanctuary - Gujarat
EPFO 2012 53 YCT
30. Which one of the following statements is true 36. Which of the following also known as brain of
about red soil ? computer?
(a) It is rich in humans. (a) Monitor
(b) It is rich is potash. (b) Arithmetic Logic Unit (ALU)
(c) Control Unit
(c) It is rich in iron compounds.
(d) Central Processing Unit (CPU)
(d) It is derived from volcanic origin.
Ans. (d) : The Central Processing Unit (CPU) is the
Ans. (c) : Red soil is rich in iron compound and brain of a computer, containing all the circuitry needed
generally poor in nitrogen phosphorous and humus. to process input store data and output results.
31. Gun metal is an alloy of 37. A technique in which data is written to two
(a) Copper, Tin, Zinc duplicate disks simultaneously, is called:
(b) Aluminium. Tin and Steel (a) Mirroring (b) Multiplexing
(c) Duplicating (d) Copying
(c) Copper, Steel and Zinc
Ans. (a) : Data mirroring refers to the real time
(d) Aluminium, Tin and Zinc
operation of copying data, as an exact copy form one
Ans. (a) : Gunmetal is composed of 88% Copper, 10% location to a local or remote storage medium. in
Tin, 2% Zinc. It is used for making gears and bearing computing mirror is an exact copy of a dataset. Most
that are to be subject to heavy leads and speeds. commonly, data mirroring is used when multiple exact
copies of data are required in multiple locations
32. If the electrical resistance of a typical substance
similarly, a live mirror is an exact copy of a dataset
suddenly drops to zero, then the substance is when it is immediately changed as the original is
called : changed. This term is also sometime known as disk
(a) Semiconductor duplexing.
(b) Conductor 38. The term 'e-Waste' refers to :
(c) Superconductor (a) The files that are deleted and enter the
(d) Super semiconductor 'Waste-bin' folder in a computer.
(b) The temporary files, folders, links etc that are
Ans. (c) : if the electrical resistance of a typical rarely used in a computer.
substance suddenly drops to zero, then the substance is (c) The electronic products such as mobiles, PCs
called Super conductor. etc, that are disposed off after their useful life
33. The material used for electric fuse is an alloy of (d) A portal that offers services for collecting
tin and lead. This alloy should have: household waste
(a) High specific resistance and low melting point. Ans. (c) : The term 'e-Waste' refers to the electronic
(b) Low specific resistance and high melting point. products such as mobiles, PCs etc, that are disposed off
after their useful life.
(c) Low specific resistance and low melting point.
39. CAD stands for :
(d) High specific resistance and high melting point. (a) Computer Aided Design
Ans. (a) : The material used for electric fuse is an alloy (b) Computer Application in Design
of tin and lead. This alloy should have high specific (c) Coded Algorithm is Design
resistance and low meting point. (d) Coded Addressable Design
34. The Word FTP stand for: Ans. (a) : CAD- Computer Aided Design
(a) File Transit Provision Design is a way to digitally created 2D drawings and
(b) File Translate Protocol 3D models of real world products before they're ever
manufactured. With 3D, CAD one can share review
(c) File Transfer Provision simulate and modify designs easily, opening doors to
(d) File Transfer Protocol innovative and differentiated products that get to market
Ans. (d) : FTP stand for File Transfer Protocol. fast.
35. RAM stands for : 40. Match List-I with List-II and select the correct
answer using the code given below the lists :
(a) Random Access Memory
List-I List-II
(b) Read Access Memory
(Contribution) (Contributor)
(c) Random Attribute Memory A. Industrial Welfare 1. Charles
(d) Random Applicable Memory Movement AMyers
Ans. (a) : RAM stands for Random Access Memory. B. Human Relations 2. A. K. Rice
Sometimes it's called PC memory or just memory. In Thought
essence, RAM is your computer or laptop's short term C. Concept of Third 3. Robert Owen
memory. Its where the data is shorted that your Force
computer processor need to run your applications and D. Ahmedabad 4. Elton Mayo
open your files. Experiment
EPFO 2012 54 YCT
Code : 43. Which of the following statements about
A B C D A B C D Workmen's Compensation Act, 1923 is true?
(a) 2 1 4 3 (b) 3 1 4 2 (a) It is not social security legislation.
(c) 2 4 1 3 (d) 3 4 1 2 (b) Its name has been changed to the Employee's
Ans. (d) : Compensation Act in 2009.
Contribution Contributor (c) In provides maximum Compensation in the
A. Industrial Welfare Movement - Robert Owen event of death.
B. Human Relations Thought - Elton Mayo (d) It does not provide compensation for
C. Concept of Third Force - Charles AMyers occupational diseases.
D. Ahmedabad Experiment - A. K. Rice Ans. (b) : Workmen's Compensation Act, 1923 was
renamed as Employee's compensation Act is 2009.
41. Match List-I with List-II and select the correct
answer using the code given below the lists : 44. Which of the following legislations is
List-I List-II comprehensive social security legislation ?
(Board Committee) (Chairperson) (a) The Maternity Benefits Act
(b) The Employees State Insurance Act
A. First National 1. G. K
(c) The Employees Compensation Act
Commission an Chadha
Labour, 1969 (d) The Employees Provident Funds and
Miscellaneous Provisions Act
B. Wage Board for 2. Ravindra
Working Journalists, Verma Ans. (b) : The Employees State Insurance (ESI) scheme
2009 under the ESI, Act 1948 provides social security
coverage to workers employed in various factories and
C. Second National 3. P.B.
establishment and covers contingencies such as
Commission on Gajendrag
sickness, maternity leaves and physical disablement or
Labour, 2002 adkar
death due to employment injury resulting is loss of
D. Index Review 4. G.R. wages or earning.
Committee, 2009 Majithia
45. What is the maximum limit of gratuity payable
Code : under the payment of Gratuity Act, 1972.
A B C D A B C D (a) 3 Lakhs rupees (b) 7.5 Lakhs rupees
(a) 3 4 2 1 (b) 1 4 2 3
(c) 10 Lakhs rupees (d) 10.5 Lakhs rupees
(c) 3 2 4 1 (d) 1 2 4 3
Ans. (c) : The Payment of Gratuity Act, 1972, provides
Ans. (a) for payment of gratuity at the rate of 15 days wages for
Board Committee Chairperson each completed year of service subject to a maximum of
A. First National Corn-mission P.B. Rs. 10 Lakh. In the case of seasonal establishment
an Labour, 1969 Gajendragadkar gratuity is payable at the rate of seven days wages for
B. Wage Board for Working G.R. Majithia each season.
Jourbalists, 2009 46. In which part of the India constitution
C. Second National Commission Ravindra Worker's participations in Management has
on Labour, 2002 Verma been incorporated?
D. Index Review Commoittee, G. K Chadha (a) The Preamble
2009 (b) The Fundamental Rights
42. Which of the following is NOT covered by the (c) The Directive Principles of State Policy
Employees Provident Fund and Miscellaneous (d) None of the above
Provisions Act, 1952. Ans. (c) : Worker's participations in Management has
(a) Pension been incorporated in Article 43(A) of the constitution
(b) Provident Fund under the directive principles of State Policy.
(c) Deposit Linked Insurance 47. Which of the following is the earliest to be
(d) Injury Compensations constituted ?
Ans. (d) : Injury Compensation is not covered by the (a) Press Council of India
Employees Provident Fund and Miscellaneous (b) United News of India
Provisions Act, 1952 Pension, Provident Fund and (c) NAM News Network
Deposit linked insurance all three are covered in it. (d) Press Trust of India
EPFO 2012 55 YCT
Ans. (d) : Ans. (b): The Mahatma Gandhi National Rural
Press Council of India - 1966 Development Guarantee Act (MGNREGA) aims at
United News of India - 1959 enhancing livelihood security in rural areas of India by
NAM News Network - 2005 providing at least one hundred days of guaranteed wage
Press Trust of India - 1947 employment in a financial year to adult members of a
rural household.
48. Which of the following statements in true about
Industrial Policy since 1991? 52. One of the following Government of India
(a) Only 5 industries related to security strategic programmes aims to help, build or upgrade
and environmental concerns require industrial dwelling units of below the poverty line rural
License families:
(b) An investor need not file an industrial (a) National Social Assistance Programme
entrepreneur Memorandum (b) Jawahar Rozgar Yojana
(c) There is no reservation of products for (c) Indira Awas Yojana
productions in small scale sectors (d) Jawaharlal Nehru National Urban Renewal
(d) The number of industries reserved for public Mission
sector has been enhanced Ans. (c) : Indira Awas Yojana is one of the following
Ans. (a) : Only 5 industries related to security strategic Government of India programmes to help, build or
and environmental concerns require industrial License upgrade dwelling units of below the poverty line rural
is true and rest three statement are not true regarding families.
industrial policy since 1991. 53. The following provisions 'Protection of
49. The newly introduced rupee symbol in based monuments and places and objects of national
on : importance' is a :
(a) Roman and Greek script (a) Fundamental Right guaranteed by the
(b) Persian and Dravidian script constitution of India
(c) Roman and Devanagari script (b) Directive principle of State Policy of the
(d) Greek and Devanagari script Constitution of India
Ans. (c) : The Indian Rupee sign is an allegory of (c) Fundamental Duty laid down by the
Indian ethos. The symbol is an amalgam of Devanagari Constitution of India.
'Ra' and the Roman Capital 'R' with two parallel (d) Presidential order in accordance with the
horizontal stripes running at the top representing the constitution of India.
national flag and also the equal to sign. Ans. (b) : The provisions 'Protection of monuments and
50. Which one of the following Institutions was not places and objects of national importance' is mentioned
set up by the Constitutions of India? in Article 49 under directive principle of State Policy of
(a) Union Public service commission the Constitution of India.
(b) Election Commission 54. The seventh schedule of the Constitution of
(c) Planning Commission India contains provisions regarding :
(d) Union Judiciary (a) Scheduled Languages
Ans. (c) : Planning Commission was established on 15 (b) Ouths and affirmations
March, 1950 reporting directly to the Prime Minister of (c) Administration of Tribal areas
India. it was not set up by the constitution of India. In (d) Union, State, Concurrent Lists
2014 it was dissolved and replaced by NITI Aayog.
Ans. (d) : The seventh schedule of the Constitution of
51. The Mahatma Gandhi National Rural India contains provisions regarding Union, State,
Development Guarantee Act (MGNREGA) Concurrent Lists.
aims at enhancing livelihood security in rural
55. The Mid-Day meal Scheme was launched in
areas of India by providing at least one
hundred: 1995 with the aim to :
(a) Days of guaranteed employment in a financial 1. Enhance enrolment, retention and
year to able adults in the Information attendance of Primary school children.
Technology sector. 2. Improve the nutritional states of primary
(b) Days of guaranteed wage employment in a school children.
financial year to adult members of a rural 3. Improve the habit of reading among rural
household households.
(c) Meals to children of rural households in one 4. Encourage the use of Tiffin boxes among
financial year primary schools children.
(d) Employees for rural developmental schemes (a) 1 and 2 only (b) 1 and 4 only
in a financial year. (c) 2 and 3 only (d) 1, 2 and 4
EPFO 2012 56 YCT
Ans. (a) : The Mid-Day meal Scheme was launched in C. Thirteenth Finance 3. Justice
1995 with the aim to: Commission Madan
— Enhance enrolment, retention and attendance of Mohan
Primary school children. Punchi
— Improve the nutritional states of primary school D. National 4. M.Veerappa
children.
Commission for the Moily
56. The president of India is elected by the Review of the
members of an electoral college consisting of
working of the
elected members of :
Constitution
1. Both Houses of Parliament
2. The Legislative Assemblies of the States. Code :
3. Union Council of Ministers. A B C D A B C D
(a) 1 only (b) 2 only (a) 4 3 1 2 (b) 2 3 1 4
(c) 1 and 2 (d) 2 and 3 (c) 4 1 4 2 (d) 2 1 4 4
Ans. (c) : Article 54 of the constitution says. The Ans. (a) :
president shall be elected by the members of an (Commission) (Chairperson)
electoral college consisting of :
a. The elected members of both houses of Parliament. A. Second Administrative M.Veerappa
b. The elected member of the legislative Assemblies of Reforms Commission Moily
the state (including NCR of Delhi and Union Territory B. Second Commission to Justice Madan
of Pondicherry). Centre-State relations Mohan Punchi
57. The responsibility of preparation of electoral C. Thirteenth Finance Vijay Kelkar
rolls in India rests with: Commission
(a) The Parliament
D. National Commission for the Justice M.N.
(b) The Local Administration
Review of the working of the Venkatachalia
(c) The Election Commission
Constitution h
(d) The Returning Officer
Ans. (c) : The responsibility of preparation of electoral 60. What is common to Sardar Hukum Singh,
rolls in India rests with the Election Commission. Jagjivan Ram, Inderjit Gupta, Somnath
Chatterjee and Seth Govind Das?
58. At the time of becoming the Prime Minister of
our country one : (a) They were Speakers of the Lok Sabha
(a) Must be a member of one of the Houses of (b) They were Deputy Speakers on the Lok
the Parliament. If not, must become of a Sabha
member of the Houses within Six months. (c) They were pro-tem Speakers of the Lok
(b) Need not necessarily be a member of one of Sabha
the House of Parliament but must get elected (d) None of the above
as a member of Lok Sabha within Six months.
(c) Must be a member of one of the House of Ans. (c) : Sardar Hukum Singh, Jagjivan Ram, Inderjit
Parliament prior to appointment. Gupta, Somnath Chatterjee and Seth Govind Das all
(d) Must be a member of Rajya Sabha were pro-tem Speakers of the Lok Sabha.
Ans. (a) : At the time of becoming the Prime Minister 61. The purpose of Adjournment motion in our
of our country one must be a member of one of the Parliament is :
Houses of the Parliament. If not, must become of a (a) To allow a discussion on a definite matter of
member of the Houses within Six months. urgent public importance.
59. Match List-I with List-II and select the correct (b) To let opposition members collect
answer using the code given below the lists : information from concerned Ministers.
List-I List-II (c) To allow a reduction of specific amount in the
(Commission) (Chairperson) demand of grant
A. Second 1. Vijay Kelkar (d) To postpone the proceedings to check the
Administrative inappropriate or the violent behavior on the
Reforms
part of some members.
Commission
B. Second Commission 2. Justice M.N. Ans. (a) : The purpose of Adjournment motion in our
to Centre-State Venkatachali Parliament is to allow a discussion on a definite matter
relations ah of urgent public importance.
EPFO 2012 57 YCT
62. Consider the following statements regarding Ans. (c) : Heritage is that which has been or may be
limitations on the authority of the Indian inherited is correct. Market price tends to be equal to
Parliament : normal price is the best relation between normal price
1. Most of the important laws can be in and market price.
introduced in the Parliament with the prior Heritage is anything given or received to be a proper
consent of the President. possession is correct.
2. Parliament has to operate within the Hence, both the statement are correct.
jurisdiction earmarked by the constitution. 67. Consider the following statement about
Which of these statement is/are correct ? heritage:
(a) Both 1 and 2 (b) Neither 1 nor 2 1. Heritage is that which has been or may be
(c) 1 only (d) 2 only inherited.
Ans. (d) : Most of the important laws can be 2. Heritage is anything given or received to be
introduced in the Parliament with the prior consent of a proper possession.
the President. This statement is incorrect as only few Which of these statement is/are correct?
laws needed the prior consent some are : Money bill (a) 1 only (b) 2 only
under Article 110 and Bill that is amending the name, (c) Both 1 and 2 (d) Neither 1 nor 2
boundries, are of a state or form a new state under
Ans. (c) : Heritage is that which has been or may be
Article 3 etc.
inherited is correct. Market price tends to be equal to
Parliament has to operate within the jurisdiction
normal price is the best relation between normal price
earmarked by the constitution. This statement is correct. and market price.
63. Archaeological studies suggest the theory that : Heritage is anything given or received to be a proper
(a) All the continents were settled with human possession is correct.
societies at about the same time. Hence, both the statement are correct.
(b) Farming societies developed before hunting
68. Bancassurance is :
and gathering.
(a) An insurance scheme to insure back deposits
(c) The earliest human evolved in the Rift valley
(b) An insurance scheme exclusively for bank
in East Africa.
employees
(d) The wheel was in used in all ancient societies.
(c) A composite financial service offering a bank
Ans. (c) : Archaeological studies suggest the theory that an insurance products
the earliest human evolved in the Rift valley in East (d) A bank deposit scheme exclusively for
Africa. employees of insurance companies
64. Which term is used to describe The spread of Ans. (c) : Bancassurance is a composite financial
Buddhism from India through Southeast Asia? service offering a bank an insurance products. it is an
(a) Social mobility (b) Cultural diffusion arrangement between a bank and an insurance company,
(c) Ethnocentrism (d) Interdependence through which the insurer sell its products to the banks
Ans. (b) : Cultural diffusion is the term used to customers.
describe the spread of Buddhism from India through 69. Inflation can be controlled by :
southeast Asia. (a) Increase in wages
65. The main objective of the Minimum Wages (b) Decrease in taxation
Act, 1948 is to safeguard the interest of the (c) Reduction in public expenditure
workers engaged in : (d) Making the rupee dearer
(a) Unorganized sector (b) Organized sector
Ans. (c) : Contractionary monetary policy is one
(c) Industrial sector (d) Agricultural sector common method of managing inflation. A
Ans. (a) : The main objective of the Minimum Wages contractionary policy aims to reduce the supply of
Act, 1948 is to safeguard the interest of the workers money within an economy by lowering the prices of
engaged in Unorganized sector. bonds and rising interests rates. Thus consumption falls
66. Which one of the following expresses the prices fall, and inflation slows down.
relation between normal price and market 70. Consider the following statement:
price ? 1. By the early nineteenth century British
(a) Market price in greater than normal price carried out detailed surveys.
(b) Market price is equal to normal price 2. The effort was to know the topography the
(c) Market price tends to be equal to normal price soil quality, the flora, the fauna, the logical
(d) Market price is lesser than normal price histories and The cropping pattern.
EPFO 2012 58 YCT
Which of these statements is/are correct? Ans. (a) :
(a) 1 only (b) 2 only Champaran - April, 1917
(c) Both 1 and 2 (d) Neither 1 nor 2 Ahmedabad Mill Stike - 15 March, 1918
Ans. (c) : By the early nineteenth century British Khera Movement - 22 March, 1918
carried out detailed surveys is correct statement. Rowlatt Act Movement - 6 April, 1919
The effort to the know the topography the soil quality, 75. Which of the following can be termed an
the flora, the fauna, the logical histories and cropping infrastructural bottleneck in the development
pattern is correct statement.
of India's economy?
Hence, Both the statement are correct.
(a) The federal nature of Indian Polity
71. Which of the following is a correct statement (b) Existence of a large variety of financial
about both the Mughal and ottoman empires in institutions.
the sixteenth century?
(c) Delay in the administration of justice relating
(a) Both of these expires has powerful navies
to land acquisition and displacement.
that engaged European navies
(d) The volatility of the Indian rupee
(b) Both of these empires expanded weapons and
extensive bureaucracies Ans. (c) : Delay in the administration of justice relating
(c) Both of these empires gave little momentary to land acquisition and displacement can be termed an
support to artistic and cultural endeavors. infrastructural bottleneck in the development of India's
(d) In both of these empires the majority of the economy.
people were Muslims. Next Four (76-80) question are based on the
Ans. (b) : Mughal and Ottoman empires in the sixteenth passage given below :
century expandend their empires through the use of It has been rightly said that we spend the first half of
gunpowder weapons and extensive bureaucracies. our lives trying to understand the older generation, and
72. Which is the correct meaning of the term 'rule the second half trying to understand the younger
of primogeniture'? generation. Youth has always felt somewhat exasperated
(a) Favorite son inheriting his father's estate with age, and age has always been suspicions of youth.
(b) Eldest son inheriting his father's estate With their natural ebullience and impatience, a
(c) Division of the inheritance amongst all the majority of young people are keen to act and learn on
sons. their own rather than be guided by the experience of their
(d) Division of the inheritance amongst all the elders. The older people, being more at home with words
sons and daughters. rather than with action, often make noises about the
problems of youth. In every generation, old men are
Ans. (b) : 'Rule of Primogeniture' the custom by which
found shaking their hoary heads and waxing nostalgic
all of a family's property goes to the oldest son when the
about the good old days when young people knew better
father dies.
and showed due reverence to age and tradition. In all
73. Which of the following would be the most ages, whenever they have pondered over the ways of
useful source of evidence for research about the youth, they have foreseen nothing but ruination staring
agrarian history of the sixteenth and early the world in its face. And yet the world goes on. Every
seventeenth centuries? generation passes from the spontaneity and exuberance
(a) Accounts of contemporary travelers of youth to the caution and prudence of old age, and then
(b) Individual revenue records yields place to the next.
(c) Chronicles and documents from the Mughal 76. What according to you, is the theme and the
court idea of the passage ?
(d) Records of the East India Company (a) Generation gap
Ans. (c) : Chronicles and documents from the Mughal (b) Problems of the youth
court would be the most useful source of evidence for (c) Optimism of the older generation
research about the agrarian history of the sixteenth and
(d) None of the above
early seventeenth centuries.
Ans. (b) : As the whole passage is describing the
74. Consider the following:
problems of the youth at maney stages of life so the
1. Rowlatt Act movement
theme is '' Problems of the Youth".
2. Khera movement
3. Champaran 77. The older generation is suspicious about the
younger generation as the youngsters lack:
4. Ahmedabad mill strike
(a) knowledge (b) experience
What is the correct chronological order of the
above mentioned Gandhian movements? (c) patience (d) time
(a) 3, 4, 2 and 1 (b) 2, 3, 1 and 4 Ans. (c) : The older generation is suspicious about the
(c) 3, 2, 4 and 1 (d) 2, 1, 3 and 4 younger generation as the youngsters lack patience.
EPFO 2012 59 YCT
78. The author seems to be supportive of the idea 82. Who, according to the author, should be
that : punished more severely?
(a) the people of the older generations are men of (a) The Police who allow this practice
words rather than action (b) The bribe giver
(b) the younger generation is impatient (c) The person who demands bribe
(c) the younger generation today is much (d) None of the above
misunderstood and move maligned than it Ans. (b) : According to the passage one who gives
deserves bribe should be awarded more severe punishment
(d) none of the above because he exploits the weakness of the poor.
Ans. (c) : The author seems to be supportive of the idea 83. Who according to the author, is more
that the younger generation today is much corrupted?
misunderstood and move maligned than it deserves. (a) Out system
79. "And yet the world goes on, " .......... what is (b) The person who demands bribe
the tone of the author in this statement ? (c) The affluent who exploits the weakness of the
(a) Optimistic (b) Pessimistic poor
(d) The supporter of bribe who is left with little
(c) Cynical (d) Critical
choice
Ans. (a) : "And yet the world goes on," the tone of the
Ans. (c) : According to the author it is the affluent that
author is optimistic. grease the wheel of corruption and exploits the
Next Four (80-83) question are based on the weakness of the poor.
passage given below : 84. A judgment made before all the facts are
Who deserves more severe punishment? One who known must be called :
gives bribes or the one who takes them? The corrupt (a) Deliberate (b) Sensible
practice of bribery is possible because there is someone (c) Premature (d) Harsh
who in ready to pay money for illegal action of decision
Ans. (c) : A judgement made before all the facts are
in his favour. Otherwise, how can one demand a bribe? known is called premature judgement or prejudge.
The bribe giver tempts others to be corrupt and that Premature judgement in communication can lead to
demoralizes our national character. Even Jesus Christ, misunderstanding.
fearing the power of temptation has said, "Lead me not
85. Which of the following pairs of words expresses
into temptation". A bribe-giver is generally moneyed and
of same relationship as is ELUSIVE :
influential while, on the other hand, one who demands CAPTURE ?
bribe does so because of his poor circumstances and (a) Sensible : decide
compulsions. Hence, one who gives bribe should be
(b) Headstrong : Controlled
awarded more severe punishment because he exploits the
(c) Elastic : Stretch
weakness of the poor. Giving and taking bribe happens
(d) Persuasive : convince
in a more vicious circle which can continue only because
of money. Naturally, therefore, it is the affluent that Ans. (b) : As "Elusive" means 'difficult to capture'
grease this wheel of corruptions and should accordingly similarly "Headstrong" means "difficult to control".
Therefore options (b) will be correct answer to the
be dealt with firmly and suitably punished to put a stop a
question.
to his nefarious practice.
80. The author feels that the practice of bribery is 86. Choose the word which is the nearest opposite
to be meaning of the underlined word:
there because there are willing bribe givers.
I wish I could pursue my studies.
(a) True (b) False
(a) Discontinue (b) Abandon
(c) Partially true (d) None of the above
(c) Restrain (d) Deter
Ans. (a) : According to the passage it is true that the
Ans. (a) : Here the word 'pursue' indicate about
author feels that the practice of bribery is there because continuation of study therefore most suitable antonym
there are willing bribe givers. According to the author for pursue would be 'discontinue'.
the bribe tempts others to be corrupt.
87. Which of the following options is the closest in
81. Who, according to the author, is more meaning to the word CIRCUITOUS ?
responsible among the following? (a) Indirect (b) Confusing
(a) The bribe-taker (b) The bribe-giver (c) Crooked (d) Cyclic
(c) The witness (d) The general public Ans. (a) : The word 'CIRCUITOUS' means not being
Ans. (b) : As the first few lines of the passage indicates, direct in language or action, therefore the word
the author held the bribe giver more responsible for the INDIRECT' is closest to the word circuitous, in
corrupt practice of bribery. meaning.
EPFO 2012 60 YCT
88. It is said that, in order to control inflation, 92. Which of the following are the main causes of
foreign inflow needs to be sterilized Sterilization the slow rate of growth of per capita income in
here refers to : India?
(a) Ensuring that counterfeit currency does not 1. High rate of capital formation
enter circulation. 2. High level of fiscal deficits
(b) Ensuring that black money is accounted for. 3. High rate of growth of population
(c) Withdrawing equivalent local currency to (a) 1, 2 and 3 (b) 1 and 2 only
maintain a desirable rate of exchange. (c) 1 and 3 only (d) 2 and 3 only
(d) Compliance with import-export regulations. Ans. (a) : High rate of capital formation, high level of
fiscal deficits and high rate of growth of population are
Ans. (c) : Here sterilization refers to withdrawing among main cause for slow growth rate of per capita
equivalent local currency to maintain a desirable rate of income in India Other main cause are lower income
exchange. In economic terms sterilizations is done to lever of most of the working class, excessive
ease the threat of currency appreciation or inflection of dependence on agriculture and problems related to land
by central banks. holdings and tenures etc.
89. NABARD means : 93. If the RBI adopts an expansionist open market
(a) National Bank for Agriculture and Rural operations policy, this means it will :
Development (a) Sell securities in the open market
(b) National Agricultural Bank and Rural (b) Buy securities from non-government holders
Development (c) Openly announce to the market that it intends
(c) National Agricultural Board and Rural to expand credit
Development (d) Offer commercial banks more credit in the
open market
(d) National Board for Agricultural and Rural Area
Development Ans. (d) : If the RBI adopts an expansionist open
market operations policy, this means it will be an
Ans. (a) : Established on July 12, 1982 by an act of the increased flow of money in the economy which will
Parliament NABARD refers to National Bank for offer commercial banks more credit in the open market.
Agriculture and Rural Development.
94. Which of the following is NOT a
90. In which of the following Acts, housing facility is recommendation of the National Cooperative
a statutory provision? Farming Advisory Board for putting
(a) The Plantations LabourAct, 1951 cooperative farming on a sounder footing ?
(b) The Factories Act, 1948 (a) Every Society should have a definite
programme for total pooling of lands.
(c) The Mines Act, 1952
(b) Financial assistance should be given only for
(d) None of the above purchase of new land.
Ans. (a) : The Plantation Labours Act, 1951 imposes (c) State Government should give priority to
the duty of providing and maintaining the nursing revitalization of the existing societies.
facility for every worker and their family, on the (d) Joint farming must be practiced with respect
employer. to all lands of the society.
91. Consider the following statements regarding Ans. (b) : The National Cooperative Farming Advisory
human development : Board for financial assistance to cooperative farming
1. Skills may beharnessed in the society through which is not limited to purchase of new land only. Rests
participations of NGOs. of the statements are correct.
2. To fill the internal gaps in the system, reviews 95. Structural Planning refers to :
and international experiences can prove to be (a) Centralized planning
helpful. (b) Laying down broad goals and strategies
Which of these statements is/are correct? (c) Changing existing institutions or creating new
ones.
(a) 1 only (b) 2 only
(d) Fixing flexible targets.
(c) Neither 1 nor 2 (d) Both 1 and 2
Ans. (c) : Structural planning refers to the type of
Ans. (d) : Regarding Human Development both the planning in which the present social and economic
given statement are true as the participation of NGOs structure is changed and a new structure emerges. It is
can be very useful in harnessing the skill in the society, most common in Developing countries which big
Also reviews and international experience can fill the economic and social changes are brought about to usher
internal gaps in the system. into a new system.
EPFO 2012 61 YCT
96. There States which have Human Development 99. Match List-I with List-II and select the correct
Index (HDI) higher than China are : answer using the code given below the lists :
(a) Kerala. Maharashtra and Madhya Pradesh List-I (Chairperson) List-II (Issue)
(b) Kerala, Punjab and Maharashtra A. D.M. 1. National
(c) Maharashtra, Madhya Pradesh and Punjab Dharmadhikari Corporate
Government
(d) Kerala Madhya Pradesh and Gujarat
policy
Ans. (b) : When the question was asked HDI value of
B. Anil Kakodkar 2. Air India-
Indian states of Kerala, Punjab and Maharashtra were Indian Airlines
higher than the HDI value of China. However as per merger
HDI 2021 China's HDI value is 0.768 whereas that of C. B.N. Srikrishna 3. Indian
Kerala, Punjab and Maharashtra are 0.752, 0.694 & Railways High
0688 respectively. Level Safety
97. Consider the following statement in respect of Review
the Comptrollers and Auditor General (CAG) : Committee
1. Reports on the accounts of the States are D. Adi Godrej 4. Financial
submitted to the President who shall cause Sector
Legislative
these to be placed before the parliament.
Reforms
2. CAG is appointed by the President of India Commission
and can be removed only on grounds and Code :
procedure similar to those of a Supreme A B C D A B C D
Court Judge. (a) 1 3 4 2 (b) 2 3 4 1
3. The form is which account is the Centre and (c) 1 4 3 2 (d) 2 4 3 1
State are to his kept is prescribed by CAG. Ans. (b) : The correct match is as follows-
Which of these statement are correct ? D.M. Dharmadhikari - Air India-Indian Airlines
(a) 1, 2 and 3 (b) 1 and 2 only merger
(c) 2 and 3 only (d) 1 and 3 only Anil Kakodkar - Indian Railways High
Ans. (c) : Article 149 of the constitution of India Level Safety Review Committee
provides for the duties and power of the computers and B.N. Srikrishna - Financial Sector
Legislative Reforms Commission
Auditor General of India. According to Act 151(2) of
Adi Godrej - National Corporate
the constitution the reports of the comptroller and
Government policy
Auditor general of India. relating to the accounts of a
100. How does National Rural Livelihood Mission
state shall be submitted to the Governor of the state,
(NRLM) seek to improve livelihood options of
who shall cause them to be laid before the legislature of rural poor ?
the state. Therefore 1st statement is incorrect. Rests are 1. By setting up a large number of new
correct statements. manufacturing industries and agribusiness
98. Which of the following is NOT one of the centers in rural areas.
features of the Special Economic Zones (SEZ) 2. By strengthening Self -help Groups (SHG)
being set up for promoting exports? and providing skill development.
(a) Foreign workers will be allowed free entry 3. By supplying seeds, fertilizers diesel pump-
sets and micro irrigation equipment free of
without Visa restrictions.
cost of farmers.
(b) The SEZ area will be treated as foreign (a) 1, 2 and 3 (b) 2 only
territory for trade operations. duties and tariff (c) 3 only (d) 1 only
(c) There will be no routine examination by Ans. (b) : National Rural Livelihood Mission is a
customs authorizes of import export cargo. poverty alleviation scheme under the ministry of Rural
(d) No license is required for import into the zone Development of Government of India. The scheme was
Ans. (a) : The Special Economic Zones in India are launched in 2011. Out of the given options only the 2nd
statement is correct. The basic concept behind this
governed by the Special Economic Zones Rule 2006.
mission is to reduce poverty by enabling the poor
The Rule does not provides for visa free entry or free household to access gainful self-employment and
entry without visa restrictions to foreign worker. Rests skilled wage by strengthening self half groups and
of the statements are correct. providing skill development.
EPFO 2012 62 YCT
Enforcement Officer/Account Officer in Employees
Provident Funds Organisation (EPFO) 2004
SOLVED PAPER
Directions (For the following 5 items): 3. S1 : From an importer of milk powder to the
In the following items each passage consists of six world's largest milk producer.
sentences. The first sentence (S1) and the sixth S6 : And to think that it began as a simple
sentence (S6) are given in the beginning. The middle experiment in a village in Gujarat only in
four sentences in each have been removed and the 1960s.
jumbled up. These are labeled PQR and S. You are P : Operation Flood is arguably India's biggest
required to find out the proper sequence of the four and most successful revolution since the
sentences and mark accordingly on the Answer Sheet. Quit India Movement.
1. S1 : We Indians by nature are extremely Q : India's Operation Flood has come a long way
emotional. from the days when even baby food was
S6 : What must be appreciated is that none of the imported to producing 84 million tones a year.
members of the Indian team has reacted to R : From abject desperation to becoming a
this mind game utterance of Hayden. global player in the dairy sector
P : Had the political parties in India not been S : From a mere few villagers and a 275 litre
busy in fighting among themselves, they processing plant to an operation spread
would have asked the Central Government across 23 States, 170 Districts and 90,000
to refuse visa to Hayden. Village Cooperatives.
Q : Statisticians are working overtime to prove The correct sequence should be:
how our players have not been selfish. (a) P-S-Q-R (b) R-Q-S-P
R: Suddenly Hayden has become a villain. (c) P-Q-S-R (d) R-S-Q-P
S: Without realizing Hayden's intent in Ans. (a) : The correct sequence should be P-S-I-R.
calling subcontinent players selfish, we 4. S1 : One of the ironies of the Indian economy's
have reacted angrily. consistent under-performance is that it has
The correct sequence should be: been planned.
(a) S - P - R - Q (b) R - Q - S - P S6 : As planning prospered, regional imbalances
(c) S - Q - R - P (d) R - P - S - Q widened and competitiveness and free
Ans. (c) : The correct sequence should be enterprise were crushed-defeating the
fundamental purpose of planned development.
S- Q-R-P.
P : It is another matter that in each of the nine
2. S1 : In the roll call of human history, the sleepy Five-Year Plans, barring the first, more
capital town of Madhya Pradesh is targets were missed than met.
indelibly linked with one of the world's Q: Within two months of India becoming a
worst man-made catastrophes. Republic, the Planning Commission was
S6 : Industries across the globe became less set up to prepare a blueprint for India's
complacent and began tightening their future, roughly once in five years.
safety protocols. R: Yet the process of planning didn't change
P : More than 2,000 died instantly. and excuses were found: wars and droughts
Q: On the night of December 3, 1984, a poisonous in the 1960s, war and oil shocks in the 70s.
grey cloud spread out from the Union Carbide S: Elaborate models were developed, backed
Plant in Bhopal, suffocating more than three by immaculate calculations, on the
lakhs of its unsuspecting residents. investments and policies required to
R: The disaster shook the world, especially when achieve the targets.
hindsight revealed that almost all safety The correct sequence should be:
regulations had been flouted by the plant. (a) Q - S - P - R (b) P - R - Q - S
S: The rest were doomed to wheeze, hobble and (c) Q - R - P - S (d) P - S - Q - R
gasp their way through life, their organs Ans. (d) : The correct sequence should be Q-S-P-R
"eaten up" by the deadly combination of gases
5. S1 : In neighbouring Tamil Nadu, Kodaikanal
that leaked out of the plant.
has fallen on bad times.
The correct sequence should be:
S6 : It is still a source of water-albeit
(a) Q - R - S - P (b) S - P - Q - R unpotable-for the thirsty Kodai.
(c) Q - P - S - R (d) S - R - Q - P
P : Trouble started when the focus was shifted
Ans. (c) : The correct sequence should be Q - P - S - R. from Ooby to Kodai in the mid 80s.
EPFO 2004 63 YCT
Q : The once pristine surroundings have been created a whole new industry.
destroyed by construction that paid scant (S)
respect to the ecological sensitivity of the The correct sequence should be:
area. (a) Q - R - S - P (b) P - S - R - Q
R: Commercial forces took over the hill (c) Q - S - R - P (d) P - R - S - Q
station and large-scale building activities
Ans. (c) : The correct sequence should be Q-S-R-P.
commenced around the artificial lake
created in the 1800s. 10. The President the aspirations of the Scheduled
S: There is large-scale deforestation as well. Castes and the Scheduled Tribes with political
The correct sequence should be: (P)
(a) P - S - Q - R (b) Q - R - P - S parties, industry and other bodies revealed that
(c) Q - S - P - R (d) P - R - Q - S (Q)
Ans. (b) : The correct sequence should be P-R-Q-S. the Government would initiate a dialogue on
(R)
Ordering of Words in a Sentence
how best the private sector could fulfil
6. War minus shooting but there was nothing to
(S)
(P)
The correct sequence should be:
suggest any was how cricket between India and
(a) S - P - R - Q (b) R - Q - S - P
(Q)
(c) S - Q - R - P (d) R - P - S - Q
Pakistan increase of animosity between the
(R) Ans. (b) : The correct sequence should be R-Q-S-P.
players or the spectators was visualized before COMPREHENSION
(S) Directions (For the following 5 item):
the first ball was bowled The passage given below is followed by questions
The correct sequence should be: based on its content. After reading the passage,
(a) P - R - Q - S (b) Q - S - P - R choose the best answer to each question. Answer all
(c) P - S - Q - R (d) Q - R - P - S the five questions following the passage on the basis of
what is stated or implied in the passage.
Ans. (b) : The correct sequence should be Q - S - P - R
7. In 1997, NASA fact-finding mission on
PASSAGE
Ocean water plays an indispensable role in
(P)
supporting life. The great ocean basins hold about
microgravity by becoming the first Indian 300 million cubic miles of water. From this vast
(Q) amount, about 80,000 cubic miles of water are sucked
woman to rocket into space on a to reach out for into the atmosphere each year by evaporation and
the stars, created history Kalpana Chawla, a returned by precipitation and drainage to the ocean.
(R) More than 24,000 cubic miles of rain decent annually
Karnal girl who wanted upon the continents. This vast amount is required to
(S) replenish the lakes and streams, spring and water
The correct sequence should be: tables on which all flora and fauna are dependent.
(a) S - R - Q - P (b) P - Q - R - S Thus, the hydrosphere permits organic existence.
(c) S - Q - R - P (d) P - R - Q - S The hydrosphere has strange characteristics
because water has properties unlike those of any
Ans. (a) : The correct sequence should be S-R-Q-P other liquid. One anomaly is that water upon freezing
8. That so suggests that there are certain cultural expands by about 9 percent, whereas most other
(P) liquids contract on cooling. For this reason, ice floats
resources, many Indians excel as expatriates on water bodies instead of sinking to the bottom. If
(Q) the ice sank, the hydrosphere would soon be frozen
that enable them to succeed while living away solidly, except for a thin layer of surface melt water
(R) during the summer season. Thus, all aquatic life
from home perhaps unique to Indians, would be destroyed and the interchange of warm and
cold currents, which moderates climates, would be
(S) notably absent.
The correct sequence should be: Another outstanding characteristic of water is
(a) S - P - Q - R (b) Q - R - S - P that water has a heat capacity which is highest of all
(c) S - R - Q - P (d) Q - P - S - R liquids and solids except ammonia. This
Ans. (d) : The correct sequence should be Q-P-S-R. characteristic enables the oceans to absorb and store
9. The advent we entertained and informed vast quantities of heat, thereby often preventing
(P) climatic extremes. In addition, water dissolves more
substances than any other liquid. It is this
ourselves of satellite television was a silent and characteristic which helps make oceans a great
(Q) storehouse for minerals which have been washed
completely changed the way revolution which down from the continents. In several areas of the
(R) world these minerals are being commercially
EPFO 2004 64 YCT
exploited. Solar evaporation of salt is widely ANTONYMS
practiced, potash is extracted from the Dead Sea and Directions (For the following 5 item):
magnesium is produced from sea water along the Each of the following five items consists of a
American Gulf Coast. word in capital letters, followed by four words
11. Which one of the following is corrent? or groups of words. Select the word or group of
According to the passage, the hydrosphere is words that is most nearly opposite in meaning
not to the word in capital letters.
(a) responsible for all forms of life 16. OUTLANDISH
(b) able to modify weather (a) Stubborn (b) Conventional
(c) a source of natural resources (c) Agitated (d) Fearful
(d) in danger of freezing over Ans. (b) : 'Outlandish' means weird, of Heat. The most
Ans. (d) : According to the passage hydrosphere in not near about word opposite in meaning is 'Conventional'.
in danger to freezing over. 17. SCANTY
12. What is the reason that fish can survive in the (a) Arrogant (b) Plentiful
oceans? (c) Painful (d) Handsome
(a) They do not need oxygen Ans. (b) : 'Scanty' means meager, Spare. The word
(b) Ice floats on the surface of the oceans opposite in meaning Plentiful.
(c) Evaporation and condensation create a water 18. PROPENSITY
cycle (a) Disinclination (b) Forecast
(d) There are currents in the oceans (c) Stagnation (d) Restlessness
Ans. (b) : Aquatic life survives such as fish survives as Ans. (a) : Propensity means tendency to behave in a
the ice floats on water bodies. instead of singing to the particular way.
bottom. If the Ice sank ....... life will be destroyed.
The word opposite in meaning is 'Disinclination'.
13. What is the author's main purpose in the
19. RECTITUDE
passage given above?
(a) Self-condemnation (b) Deceitfulness
(a) To describe the properties and uses of water
(c) Reprisal (d) Punctuality
(b) To illustrate the importance of conserving water
(c) To explain how water is used in commerce Ans. (b) : Rectitude means morally correct behaviours.
and industry The word opposite in meaning is 'Deceitfulness'.
(d) To reveal the extent of the earth's ocean masses 20. Pontificate
Ans. (b) : The line in the passage that "hydrosphere (a) To pilfer
permits organic existence" tells about importance of (b) To leave one's country
conserving water. (c) To speak in a humble manner
14. What is the reason that climatic extremes are (d) To spend recklessly
prevented in nature? Ans. (c) : 'Pontificate' means to speak in dogmatic way'.
(a) A vast quantity of water is held in the great The opposite meaning to pontificate will be 'To speak
ocean basins in humble manner.
(b) The heat capacity of water is very high SYNONYMS
(c) Solar evaporation from the oceans uses high Direction (For the following 5 items):
technology Each of the following five items consists of a
(d) Water dissolves many substances word in capital letters, followed by four words
Ans. (b) : As per the passage, the heat capacity of water or groups of words. Select the word or group of
is very high. This enables ocean to absorb and store vast words that is most similar in meaning to the
quantities of heat thereby often preventing climatic word in capital letters.
extremes. 21. COMMISERATION
15. Which of the following characteristics of water (a) Commission (b) Vastness
does the author mention in the passage? (c) Sympathy (d) Commendation
1. Water expands when it is frozen Ans. (c) : 'Commiseration' means sympathy. Thus
2. Water is used as a condensing medium for sympathy is correct answer.
thermal power plants 22. SLIPSHOD
3. Water is a good solvent (a) Vulgar (b) Careless
Select the correct answer using the codes given (c) Commonplace (d) Retaliatory
below: Ans. (b) : 'Slipshod' means 'careless'. Thus 'careless' is
Codes: correct answer.
(a) 1 only (b) 2 and 3 23. COGENT
(c) 1 and 3 (d) 1, 2 and 3 (a) Forceful (b) Objectionable
Ans. (c) : Author mention in the passage that water (c) Exceptional (d) False
expands when it is Frozen and water is a good solvent Ans. (a) : 'Cogent' means strongly convincing argument
as it dissolves more substances than any other liquid. the word similar in meaning is 'forceful'.
EPFO 2004 65 YCT
24. PONDEROUS (a) 1 only (b) 2 only
(a) Facile (b) Exorbitant (c) Both 1 and 2 (d) Neither 1 nor 2
(c) Cautious (d) Unwieldy Ans. (a) : The first report of Administrative Reforms
Ans. (d) : Ponderous means 'huge' 'heavy' 'to great Commission heated by K. Hanumanthaiya recommended
weight' the creation of Lok Pal and Lok Ayukta in India.
The word similar in meaning is 'Unwieldy'. Article 315 of constitution of India provides for setting of
25. MASQUERADE Public service commission for the Union and For the states.
(a) To provide support Planning Commission was an executive body and
(b) To go in disguise vigilence commission is statutory body.
(c) To mesmerize 28. Consider the following statements:
(d) To run in a marathon race 1. Money Bill can be introduced in any House
Ans. (b) : 'Masquerade' means 'Pretend to be something of Parliament.
else' . 2. If any question arises whether a bill is a
The word similar in meaning is 'To go in disguise'. Money Bill or not, the decision of the
Chairman of the Public Accounts
26. Match List-I (Commission/Committee) with
List-II (Chairman) and select the correct Committee is final.
answer using the codes given below the Lists: 3. Vote of Credit enables a grant to be
List-I List-II approved by the parliament in advance of
the detailed examination of various
(Commission/ (Chairman)
demands presented to it.
Committee)
Which of the statements given above is/are
A. Economic Reforms 1. R.S. Sarkaria correct?
Commission (a) 1 and 2 (b) 2 and 3
B. Commission on centre 2. K. Hanumanthaiya (c) 1 and 3 (d) None
State Relations
C. Administrative Reforms 3. L.K. Jha Ans. (d) : A money bill can only be introduced in only
lower house of the Parliament which is Lok Sabha on
Commission the recommendation of president. If any questions arises
D. Committee on the 4. K. Santhanam whether a bill is a money bill or not, the decision of
Prevention of Corruption speaker of the House of the people shall be final.
5. D.S. Kothari Vote of credit is the financial grant given to Executive
Codes: from resources of India to meet urgent financial
(a) A B C D requirements whose details can not be shared ordinarily
3 4 2 1 in a budget.
(b) A B C D 29. Consider the following statements related to
2 1 5 4 the Indian parliamentary system:
(c) A B C D 1. If forty or more members support an
3 1 2 4 Adjournment Motion, only then the related
(d) A B C D matter can be taken up for discussion.
2 4 5 1 2. Under an Adjournment Motion, even a sub
Ans. (c) : The correct match is : - judice matter can be taken up for
Commission/ committee Chairman discussion.
Economic Reforms – L.K. Jha 3. Under Article 112 of the Constitution of
commission India, the Union Finance Minister causes
to be laid before both the House of
Commission on Centre State – R. S. Sarkaria parliament and 'Annual Financial
Relation Statement' for each financial year.
Administrative Reforms – K. Which of the statements given above is/are
commission Hanumanthaiya correct?
Committee on Prevention of – K. Santhanam (a) 1 only (b) 3 only
Corruption (c) 2 and 3 (d) None
27. Consider the following statement: Ans. (d) : The adjournment motion is introduced in the
1. The first report of the Administrative Parliament to draw the attention of the House to a
Reforms Commission recommended the definite matter of urgent public importance and needs
creation of Lok Pal and Lok Ayukta in the support of 50 members to be admitted. The motion
India. should not deal with any matter that is under
2. Different articles under the Constitution of adjudication by the court. Under Article 112 of the
India provide for setting up the Union constitution of India the President causes to be laid
Public Service Commission and the before both the houses of parliament a statement of the
Vigilance Commission. estimated receipts and expenditure of the government of
Which of the statements given above is/are India in that year referred to as the Annual financial
correct? statement.
EPFO 2004 66 YCT
30. Match List-I (Institute) with List-II (Location) (a) China (b) India
and select the correct answer using the codes (c) Indonesia (d) United States of America
given below the Lists: Ans. (b) : Currently, India is the world's leading
List-I List-II producer of cotton surpassing China. The United States
(Institute) (Location) is the third largest producer of cotton globally.
A. Indian Institute of 1. Faridabad 34. Which one of the following is a super-cooled
Public Administration liquid?
B. V.V. Giri National 2. Bangalore (a) Ice-cream (b) Teflon
Labour Institute (c) Glass (d) Mercury
C. National Institute of 3. NOIDA Ans. (c) : Super cooling is the process of chilling a
Financial Management liquid below its freezing point without it becoming a
D. National Law School of 4. Mumbai solid. A super cooled liquid is a liquid below its
India University freezing point that has not crystallized to Freeze. Glass
5. Delhi is a example of super cooled liquid.
Codes: 35. Why does bleeding occur through nose in high
(a) A B C D mountainous regions?
1 2 4 3 (a) The pressure of blood in capillaries is greater
(b) A B C D than the outside pressure
5 3 1 2 (b) The pressure at high altitudes is greater that
(c) A B C D that on the plains
1 3 4 2 (c) The blood pressure of a person increases at
(d) A B C D high altitudes
5 2 1 3 (d) The blood pressure fluctuates and finally
decreases drastically
Ans. (b) :
Ans. (a) : Atmospheric pressure decreases with increase
Institute Location in altitude. Therefore as we go higher, the pressure
Indian Institute of Public – Delhi within blood vessels exceeds the outside pressure. This
Administration causes the blood vessels to rupture. As a result bleeding
V.V. Giri National Labour Institute – NOIDA occurs through nose in high mountainous regions.
National Institute of Financial – Faridabad 36. Which of the following is detected and
Management estimated by the 'Pollution Check' carried out
Nation Law School of India – Bangalore on motor cars at service stations?
University (a) Lead and carbon particles
31. Where is the Holy Shrine of Imam Ali in Najaf (b) Oxides of nitrogen and sulphur
located? (c) Carbon monoxide
(a) Saudi Arabia (b) Iraq (d) Carbon dioxide
(c) Iran (d) Kuwait Ans. (a) : Lead and carbon particle are highly polluting.
Ans. (b) : The Holy Shrine of Imam Ali Najaf is located These are detected and estimated by the pollution check
in Iraq. The Shia muslims considers Imam Ali as their carried out on motor cars at service stations.
first Imam. 37. Which one of the following causes small air
32. Why was the region of Darfur of Sudan in bubbles in water which is stored in a glass
news recently? vessel, to appear to shine with a silvery luster?
(a) Americans bombed the terrorist training (a) Reflection of light rays
camps set up over there by the Janaweed (b) Refraction of light rays
militiamen of Sudan (c) Polarization of light rays
(b) Thousands of blank African civilians were (d) Total internal reflection
killed or displaced by the Janaweeds who are Ans. (d) : Small air bubbles in water stored in glass
supported by the Arab-dominated Sudan's vessel shines due to total internal reflection.
Government The total internal reflection is the phenomenon in which
(c) Bird flu started from there light waves arriving at interface from one medium to
(d) A dam over the river Blue Nile was swept another are not refracted into second medium but
away killing thousands of people complete reflected back into first medium.
Ans. (b) : Since 2003, the Darfur region of Western 38. Weight of a body on the surface of the earth is
Sudan has been site of terrible violence, death and W1. The weight of the same body is W2 at a
displacement. It was in news when question was asked height of 500 metres above the surface, and W3
as thousands of Black African civilians were killed or at a depth of 500 metres below the surface of
displaced by the Janaweeds who are supported by the the earth. Which one of the following is the
Arab dominated Sudan's government. correct relation?
33. Which country among the following is the (a) W3 > W1 > W2 (b) W1 > W2; W1 > W3
biggest producer of cotton? (c) W1 < W2 < W3 (d) W2 > W3 > W1
EPFO 2004 67 YCT
Ans. (b) : Weight of a body on surface of earth is 1 3
maximum. Going above the earth the value of gravity (a) (b)
20 20
decreases thus weight also decrease. Body at a distance 1 31
from earth will have lower weight than the body at (c) (d)
surface of earth as value of gravity (g) is maximum at 40 40
the surface of earth. Ans. (c) :
Ways of letters taken from "ASSAM" = 5
39. Which one of the following is not a vitamin?
Ways of letter taken from "NAGALAND" = 8
(a) Folic acid (b) Oleic acid
Total number of ways = 5 × 8 = 40
(c) Pantothenic acid (d) Ascorbic acid
1
Ans. (b) : Folic Acid and Pantothenic acid are vitamins Probability of word =
B9 and B5 respectively while Ascorbic acid is Vitamin 40
C. Oleic acid is an unsaturated fatty acid not a vitamin. 44. A set of 5 parallel lines is intersected by
another set of 4 parallel lines so as to form a
40. Which one of the following statements is not
number of parallelograms. How many
correct? parallelograms can be formed?
(a) The deficiency of Vitamin A causes night (a) 12 (b) 20
blindness
(c) 40 (d) 60
(b) Pain in the muscles and joints along with
fatigue, loss of weight and poor wound Ans. (d) : For a parallelograms 4 lines needed.
healing are the symptoms of the deficiency of Considering 2 lines from both set f parallel lines.
Vitamin C Total Parallelogram = 5 C 2 ×4 C 2
(c) Bleeding gums and loosening to teeth are 5! 4!
symptoms of the deficiency of Vitamin B1 = ×
(d) The deficiency of Vitamin B5 can cause 3!2! 2!2!
inflammation of skin, memory disorder and 5 × 4 4 × 3× 2
= ×
diarrhea. 2 2× 2
Ans. (c) : The vitamins and their deficiency disease are = 60 Parallelograms
as per table. 45. Three dice are rolled. What is the probability
Vitamins Deficiency Disease that at least one die will show 6?
A Night Blindness 1 1
B1 Beri-Beri Eartiovaseular disease. (a) (b)
6 36
Energy metabolism 91 125
B5 Heatach, fatigul (c) (d)
216 216
C Bleeding gums weakness fatigue.
Ans. (c) :
Bleeding gums is caused due to deficiency of vitamin-C
thus option (c) is correct answer. 1 5 5
Probability of getting '6' at One dice = × × × 3
41. Which one of the following elements is not 6 6 6
naturally found in human beings? 275
(a) Copper (b) Zinc =
216
(c) Iodine (d) Lead Probability of getting '6' at Two dice
Ans. (d) : Lead is an heavy element not found naturally
1 1 5 15
in human body. Rest all the elements are found = × × ×3 =
naturally in human body. 6 6 6 216
42. What is the number of triangles that can be 1 1 1
Probability of getting '6' at three dices = × × × 3
formed whose vertices are at the vertices of an 6 6 6
octagon but have only one side common with
that of the octagon? 1
=
(a) 16 (b) 24 216
(c) 32 (d) 48 75 + 15 + 1 91
Total Probability = =
n × (n + 1) 216 216
Ans. (b) : Total number of triangles =
3 46. How many numbers are there between 999 and
Q Pentagon has 8 sides 10000 such that at least one of their digits is 5?
8 × (8 + 1) 8 × 9 (a) 2879 (b) 3168
Thus total triangles = = = 24 (c) 3200 (d) 3224
3 3
Ans. (b) : Total 4 digits numbers = 10000 -1000 = 9000
43. A letter is taken out at random from the word
'ASSAM' and a letter is taken out at random Total 4 digits numbers (except 0 at 1st place) = 8×9×9×9
from the word 'NAGALAND'. What is the Total digits where at least one digit is 5 = 9000 – 5832
probability that the two letters are the same? = 3168
EPFO 2004 68 YCT
47. Match List-I (Wildlife Sanctuary) with List-II 50. Consider the following statements with
(State) and select the correct answer using the reference to the Census 2001 of India:
codes given below the Lists: 1. For the first time, the country has
List-I List-II witnessed a faster growth in female literacy
(Wildlife Sanctuary) (State) compared to that of males during the
A. Bhitar Kanika 1. Andhra Pradesh decade 1991-2001.
B. Pachmarhi 2. Karnataka 2. During the decade 1991-2001, the rural-
C. Pocharam 3. Madhya Pradesh urban literacy gap continued to diverge.
D. Sharavathi 4. Orissa Which of the statements given above is/are
5. Uttar Pradesh correct?
Codes: (a) 1 only (b) 2 only
(a) A B C D (c) Both 1 and 2 (d) Neither 1 nor 2
4 2 1 3 Ans. (a) : During 1991-2011 for first time country
(b) A B C D witnessed a faster growth in female literacy i.e. 14.38%
1 3 5 2 compared to the males which was 11.13%. Thus
(c) A B C D statement is 1 correct.
4 3 1 2 51. Four different toys are to be distributed among
(d) A B C D two children such that each child gets at least
1 2 5 3 one toy. In how many different ways can this be
Ans. (c) : done?
Wild life Sanctuary State (a) 6 (b) 8
Bhitar Kanika Orissa (Odisha) (c) 12 (d) 14
Panchmarhi Madhya Pradesh Ans. (a) :
Pocharam Telangana Given toys can be distributed in 4 C 2 ways
(Then Andhra Pradesh)
4 4!
Sharavathi Karnataka 4
C2 = =
48. What was the total expenditure on education (4 − 2)!2! 2 × 2
both the Central and State Governments = 6 ways
during the year 2002-03 as an approximate 52. Consider the following statements related to
percentage of the Gross Domestic Product? the World War II:
(a) 2% (b) 3% 1. Germany attacked the US naval base at
(c) 4% (d) 5% Pearl Harbour.
Ans. (c) : Total expenditure on education as 2. Winston Churchill was the British Prime
approximate percentage GDP by central and state Minister during the World War II.
governments in 2002-03 was 3%. 3. The Versaillers Treaty which is generally
49. Consider the following statements with cited as one of the main causes of the
reference to the United Nations Organization: World Was II was signed just before the
1. In the General Assembly of the UNO, no World Was II in 1939.
member-nation has veto power. 4. Franklin Roosevelt was the resident of the
2. In the Security Council, all permanent United States of America when atom
members must vote in the affirmative if a bombs were dropped over the Japanese
resolution is to pass. cities of Hiroshima and Nagasaki.
Which of the statements given above is/are Which of the statements given above is/are
correct? correct?
(a) 1 only (b) 2 only (a) 1, 2 and 3 (b) 1, 3 and 4
(c) Both 1 and 2 (d) Neither 1 nor 2 (c) 2 only (d) 3 and 4
Ans. (b) : All UN member states are represented in the Ans. (c) : During course of world war II the Japan not
general Assembly. Each member state has one vote. the Germany attacked US Naval base at Pearl Harbour.
Decisions on issues may be passed by either two third
majority or simple majority depending on issues. Also Winston Churchill was British Prime Minister during
many decision are reached by consensus without a World War II.
formal vote No member nation has veto power. in The Treaty of Versailles which is generally cited as one
General Assembly. of the main causes of World War II was singed in 1919
In the security council if a resolution is to pass all not just before world war II. When atom bombs were
permanent members must vote in the affirmative I dropped over the Hiroshima and Nagasaki the President
Permanent members have right to veto. If they does not of United State was Harry S. Truman not Franklin
wish to cast a veto, they may choose to abstain. Roosevelt.
EPFO 2004 69 YCT
53. Match List-I (Railway Zone) with List-II Directions:
(Headquarters) and select the correct answer The following seven (7) items consist of two
using the codes given below the Lists: statements: one labeled as the 'Assertion (A)'
and the other as 'Reason (R)'. You are to
List-I List-II
examine these two statements carefully and
(Railway Zone) (Headquarters) select the answers to these items using the codes
A. East-Central Railway 1. Allahabad given below:
B. North-Western Railway 2. Hajipur Codes:
C. North-Central Railway 3. Jabalpur (a) Both A and R are individually true and R
is the correct explanation of A
D. South-Western Railway 4. Jaipur
(b) Both A and R are individually true but R is
Codes: not the correct explanation of A
(a) A B C D (c) A is true but R is false
3 5 2 1 (d) A is false but R is true
(b) A B C D 55. Assertion (A):
2 1 4 5 Recently, the four public sector general
(c) A B C D insurance companies have launched a
community-based 'Universal Health Insurance
3 1 2 5 Scheme'.
(d) A B C D Reason (R):
2 5 4 1 According to the Constitution of India, the task
Ans. (a) : The correct match is of promoting public health primarily rests with
the Union Government.
Railway zone Headquarters
Ans. (c) : At the time when questions was asked the
East central Railway Hajipur four public sector general insurance companies had
North Western Railway Jaipur launched a community based "Universal Health
North Central Railway Allahabad Insurance Scheme". Promoting Public Health is in State
South Western Railway Hubli list not in Union list.
56. Assertion (A):
54. Match List-I (Produce) with List-II (Major
In its Global Development Finance Report
Producer State) and select the correct answer 2004, the World Bank has categorized India as
using the codes given below the Lists: a less indebted country for the year 2002.
List-I List-II Reason (R):
(Produce) (Major Producer State) During the last decade, India's outstanding
A. Rubber 1. Andhra Pradesh external debt has considerably reduced.
B. Soyabean 2. Tamil Nadu Ans. (c) : In Global Development finance report 2004
world Bank Categorlsed India as less indebted country
C. Groundnut 3. Madhya Pradesh
for the year 2002. During last decade India's
D. Wheat 4. Kerala outstanding external debt not reduced considerably.
5. Uttar Pradesh Thus Assertion is correct and reason incorrect.
Codes: 57. Assertion (A):
(a) A B C D The salinity of the open seas is very high
4 1 2 5 compared to that of inland seas.
(b) A B C D Reason (R):
The water of rivers flowing into open seas
5 3 1 4
contains dissolved salts.
(c) A B C D
Ans. (d) : The salinity of open seas is high or low
4 3 1 5 compared to inland seas depends on latitude. The
(d) A B C D water or river contain dissolved salts.
5 1 2 4 58. Assertion (A):
Ans. (c) : The correct match is : During the British rule, the Congress Ministers
Produce Major Producer State resigned in 1939 in all the provinces where they
were in office.
Rubber Kerala
Reason (R):
Soyabean Madhya Pradesh
Congress wanted fresh elections as it was
Groundnut Andhra Pradesh frustrated with Jinnah's campaign of two-
Wheat Uttar Pradesh nation theory.
EPFO 2004 70 YCT
Ans. (c) : Congress Minister resigned in 1931 in all the Ans. (b) : The correct match is -
provinces where they were in office to oppose the Persons Writing
India's inmovement in second world war. Thus Asvaghosha Buddhacharita
Assertion correct and reason is correct. Nagarjuna Madhyamic Sutra
59. Assertion (A): Patanjali Yogasutra
Aurangzeb released Shahu from the prison Ramannua Vedanta Sangrah
shortly before Aurangzeb died in 1707.
Reason (R): 64. Match List-I (Indian Kings) with List-II
Zulfiqar pointed out that Shahu's return to his (Dynasty) and select the correct answer using
Kingdom would cause a division among the the codes given below the List:
Marathas who would thus be disabled from List-I List-II
plundering the imperial territories. (Indian Kings) (Dynasty)
Ans. (d) : Shahu was released from Mughal prison after A. Karikala 1. Bactria-Greek
death of Aurangzeb in 1707. Zulfiqar, advisor to B. Rudradaman I 2. Chola
Bahadur Shah thought that Shahu's return to his C. Milinda 3. Chalukya
kingdom would cause a division among the Marthas. D. Kanishka 4. Kushan
Thus Assertion is incorrect and reason is correct. 5. Shaka
60. Assertion (A): Codes:
Glycerol is a constituent of shaving cream. (a) A B C D
Reason (R): 2 4 1 5
Glycerol is an antiseptic. (b) A B C D
Ans. (a) : Gylcerol is an antiseptic thus used in many 1 5 3 4
medicines including shaving cream. Thus Assertion and (c) A B C D
reason both are correct and reason explains assertion.
2 5 1 4
61. Assertion (A): (d) A B C D
Phenol is commonly used as a disinfectant. 1 4 3 5
Reason (R):
Phenol is not harmful to living human tissues Ans. (c) : The correct match is :
even at a very high concentration. Indian kings Dynasty
Ans. (c) : Phenol is commonly used as disinfectant and Karikala Chola
is harmful to living human tissues. Thus assertion is Rudradaman I Shako
correct and reason is incorrect. Milinda Bactria Greek
62. Which one of the following is the correct Kanishka Kushan
chronological sequence of the given Bhakti Saints? 65. Consider the following statements:
(a) Guru Nanak - Tulsidas - Ramdas - Tukaram India had Plan Holiday during 1966-69 due to
(b) Tulsidas - Guru Nanak - Tukaram - Ramdas 1. Indo-Pakistan conflict in 1965.
(c) Guru Nanak - Tulsidas - Tukaram - Ramdas 2. Severe drought for two successive years.
(d) Tulsidas - Guru Nanak - Ramdas - Tukaram Which of the statements given above is/are
Ans. (c) : The correct chronological sequence of Bhakit correct?
saints are as follows. (a) 1 only (b) 2 only
Gurunanak - 1469-1539 (c) Both 1 and 2 (d) Neither 1 nor 2
Tulsidas - 1532-1623 Ans. (c) : India had a plan holiday during 1966-69 due
Tukaram - 1608-1650 to successive wars with China in 1962 with 'Pakistan in
Ramdas - 1608-1681 1965 and also severe draught for two successive years.
63. Match List-I (Persons) with List-II (Writings) 66. Consider the following statements:
and select the correct answer using the codes 1. Dadra and Nagar Heveli which merged
given below the Lists:
with the India Union in 1961 were ruled by
List-I (Persons) List-II (Writings)
the Portuguese.
A. Asvaghosha 1. Buddha Charita
2. Both Pondicherry and Chandernagore
B. Nagarjuna 2. Madhyamika Sutra
were ruled by the French.
C. Patanjali 3. Vedanta Sangraha
D. Ramanuja 4. Yogasutra 3. Goa got its freedom in 1961.
Codes: Which of the statements given above is/are
(a) A B C D correct?
4 3 1 2 (a) 1, 2 and 3 (b) 2 and 3
(b) A B C D (c) 1 and 3 (d) 2 only
1 2 4 3 Ans. (a) : Dadra and Nagar Haveli merged with Indian
(c) A B C D Union in 1961 earlier ruled by Portuguese. Goa was
4 2 1 3 also ruled by Portuguese got its freedom in 1961.
(d) A B C D Both Pondicherry and Chandanagar were ruled by
1 3 4 2 French government.
EPFO 2004 71 YCT
67. Consider the following statements: 3. South-west Monsoon season is termed as the
1. The average population density of India is Kharif season of crops.
between 600-700 persons per square Which of the statements given above are
kilometer. correct?
2. 2002-2007 is the duration of the Tenth Five- (a) 2 and 3 (b) 1 and 2
Year Plan. (c) 1 and 3 (d) 1, 2 and 3
3. Installed electricity generation capacity in Ans. (a) : In India cropping intensity is high in plains
India is in excess of 2 Lakh Megawatt. and coastal areas not in Peninsular states. States of
Which of the statements given above is/are Punjab and Haryana have highest proportion of the net
correct? sown area to total geographical area.
(a) 1 and 2 (b) 2 only South west mansoon is termed as Kharif season.
(c) 1 and 3 (d) 1, 2 and 3 71. Match List-I (Country) with List-II (Location)
Ans. (b) : When question was asked the average and select the correct answer using the codes
population density of India was 382 person per square given below the Lists:
kilometer. Duration of tenth five year is 2002-2007. List-I List-II
Total electricity generation was less than 2 lakh (Country) (Location)
megawatt. A. Bahamas 1. Europe
68. Consider the following statements: B. Belize 2. North America
1. The Chief Minister of Delhi is appointed by C. Macedonia 3. North Atlantic Ocean
the President of India. D. Gabon 4. Africa
2. The Delhi Police and Municipal Corporation 5. South America
of Delhi do not come under the administrative Codes:
purview of the Delhi Government. (a) A B C D
Which of the statements given above is/are 3 4 1 2
correct? (b) A B C D
(a) 1 only (b) 2 only 1 2 5 4
(c) Both 1 and 2 (d) Neither 1 nor 2 (c) A B C D
Ans. (c) : The chief minister of Delhi is appointed by 3 2 1 4
president of India. (d) A B C D
The Delhi Police and Municipal Corporation of Delhi 1 4 5 2
do not come under administrative pruview of the Delhi
Ans. (c) : The correct match is
government.
Country Location
69. Consider the following statements: Bahamas North Atlantic Ocean
1. The Legislative Assembly of a State cannot Belize North America
have more than 450 and not less than 50
Macedonia Europe
members chosen by direct election from
territorial constituencies. Gabon Africa
2. The number of members of Legislative 72. Going from the West of the United States of
Council of a State cannot exceed one-third of America to its East, which one of the following
the total membership of the Legislative is the correct sequence of the given major
Assembly of that State subject to a minimum American cities?
of 40. (a) Houston-Los Angeles-San Francisco-San
Which of the statements given above is/are Francisco
correct? (b) San Francisco - New York - Houston - Los
(a) 1 only (b) 2 only Angeles
(c) Both 1 and 2 (d) Neither 1 nor 2 (c) Houston - New York - San Francisco - Los
Angeles
Ans. (b) : The Legislative Assembly of a state can not (d) San Francisco - Los Angeles - Houston - New
have more than 500 and not less than 60 members York
chosen bx direct elections from territorial
constituencies. The number of members of Legislative Ans. (d) : San Francisco is western most city of
council of a state can not exceed one-third of the total America and Newyork is eastern most city.
membership of Legislative assembly of that state Thus option (d) is correct.
subject to minimum of 40. 73. Consider the following statements:
70. Consider the following statements: 1. Uttar Pradesh and Bihar are two States
1. In India, intensity of cropping is high in the with maximum population of Scheduled
States of the peninsular plateau. Castes.
2. In India, the States of Punjab and Haryana 2. Punjab has the highest ratio of the
have the highest proportion of the net sown Scheduled Caste population to its total
area to total geographical area. population.
EPFO 2004 72 YCT
3. There was a provision for setting up a Codes:
National Commission for the Scheduled (a) A B C D
Castes and the Scheduled Tribes under the 3 5 2 1
Article 338 of the Constitution of India.
However by a Constitutional Amendment (b) A B C D
Act, separate National Commission for the 2 4 1 1
Scheduled Castes and National Commission (c) A B C D
for the Scheduled Tribes have been set up. 3 4 2 2
Which of the statements given above is/are (d) A B C D
correct? 2 5 1 4
(a) 2 only (b) 1 and 2
(c) 2 and 3 (d) 1 and 3 Ans. (b) : The correct match is
Ans. (c) : In India maximum scheduled caste in ratio Historical Site State
are in Punjab which is 36.75% of total population. Shore Temple Tamil Nadu
Maximum scheduled caste population is in Uttar Bhimbetka Madhya Pradesh
Pradesh followed by West Bengal. The Provision for Hoysala monuments Karnataka
common commission for the scheduled casted and Hampi Karnataka
scheduled Tribes under article 338 of constitution is
replaced by provision for separate commission for both. 77. During the World War II, Indian soldiers
fought heroically in the Battle at Monte
74. Match List-I (Beach Resort) with List-II (State)
and select the correct answer using the codes Cassino. Where is Monte Cassino located?
given below the Lists: (a) Poland (b) Italy
List-I List-II (c) Germany (d) Greece
(Beach Resort) (State) Ans. (b) : Monte cassino is rocky hill located at
A. Digha 1. Kerala southeast of Rome, Italy.
B. Covelong 2. West Bengal 78. A stadium has 10 gates. In how many different
C. Cherai 3. Maharashtra ways can 3 persons enter the stadium?
D. Murud-Janjira 4. Tamil Nadu (a) 10 (b) 30
Codes: (c) 310 (d) 1000
(a) A B C D
2 4 1 3 Ans. (d) : Total no. of gates = 10
(b) A B C D Total no. of person = 3
3 1 4 2 ∴ One person can be enter in 10 ways so it is 10C1
(c) A B C D Similarly, other person can be entered in same way.
2 1 4 3 Hence, the number of person can be enter in way–
(d) A B C D 10
C1× 10C1×10C1 = 10×10×10 = 1000
3 4 1 2 79. At the conclusion of a party, a total number of
Ans. (a) : The correct match is : 28 handshakes was exchanged. Every person in
Beach Resort State the party shook hands with every other person
Digha West Bengal who attended the party. What was the total
Covelong Tamil Nadu number of persons who attended the party?
Cherai Kerala (a) 8 (b) 14
Murud Janjira Maharashtra. (c) 28 (d) 56
75. Where are the maximum number of major Ans. (c) : Let number of person in party = n
ports located in India?
(a) Maharashtra (b) Kerala Total handshakes = n C 2
(c) Goe (d) Tamil Nadu n! n × ( n − 1) × ( n − 2 ) ! n × ( n − 1)
n
C2 = = =
Ans. (d) : Tamil Nadu has maximum number of major 2!( n − 2 ) ! 2! ( n − 2 ) ! 2
ports which are Chennai and Tuticorin.
Now,
76. Match List-I (Historical Site) with List-II
(State) and select the correct answer using the n × ( n − 1)
codes given below the Lists: = 28
2
List-I List-II 2
n – n = 56
(Historical Site) (State) n2 – n – 56 = 0
A. Shore temple 1. Karnataka n2 – 8n + 7n – 56 = 0
B. Bhimbetka 2. Tamil Nadu n(n–8) 47 (n–8) = 0
C. Kesava temple 3. Kerala
(n+7) (n–8) = 0
(Hoysala Mounments)
n=8
D. Hampi 4. Madhya Pradesh
5. Rajasthan Thus 8 Person were present in party.
EPFO 2004 73 YCT
80. Amit has 7 friends whom he wishes to invite to 83. What is the nth term of the series
a dinner. Out of his 7 friends, 1 or more may
accept the invitation. In how many different 3, 6, 2 3,...?
( 2) ( 3)
ways can Amit's 7 friends attend the party? n –1 n –1
(a) 96 (b) 112 (a) 3 (b) 2
(c) 127 (d) 128
3( 2) 2 ( 3)
n n
Ans. (c) : Amit's 1 friend may attend party in 7C1 ways (c) (d)
Amit's 2 friend may attend party in 7C2 ways
Amit's 3 friend may attend party in 7C3 ways Ans. (a) :
Amit's 4 friend may attend party in 7C4 ways Series - 3, 6, 2 3 − − − − −
Amit's 5 friend may attend party in 7C5 ways
Amit's 6 friend may attend party in 7C6 ways = 3×( 2)º, 3× 2, 3× 2× 2 −−−−−
Amit's 7 friend may attend party in 7C7 ways
3( 2) ,
( )
( 2)
( 2 −1)
( 2)
1−1 3 −1
Total ways = 7C1 +7C2 +7C3 +7C4 +7C5 +7C6 +7C7 = 127 = 3× , 3×
ways
3×( 2)
n −1
81. There are three envelopes with three different nth term =
addresses written on them. Three letters are to
be enclosed in these three envelopes such that 84. The length of a rectangle is reduced by 20%
one letter goes inside one envelope without and breadth is kept constant, and the new
seeing the address written on any envelope.
What is the probability that each of the three figure that is formed is a square.
letters goes into the envelope with correct Consider the following statements:
address written on it? 1. The area of square is 25% less than the
1 1 area of rectangle.
(a) (b)
27 6 2. The perimeter of square is approximately
1 1 11% less than the perimeter of rectangle.
(c) (d)
9 3 3. The diagonal of square is approximately
Ans. (c) : Total envelopes = 3 12% less than the diagonal of rectangle.
Probability of 1 Letter enclosed in envelope = 1/3
Which of the statements given above is/are
Probability of every letter enclosed in correct
envelop = 1/3 ×1/3×1/3= 1/27. correct?
82. A person and his wife appear in the interview (a) 1 only (b) 1 and 2
for the two vacancies of a post. The probability (c) 1, 2 and 3 (d) 2 and 3
of the selection of the husband and that of the
Ans. (d) :
1 1
wife are and , respectively. What is the Let the length of rectangle = 100 m
7 5
probability that only one of them will be breath of rectangle = 80 m
selected? Area = 100×80 = 8000m2
(a)
1
(b)
1 If length reduce bx20% the length = 8m
7 5 Area of square = 8000 – 6400 = 1600m2
2 11
(c) (d) 1600
7 35 Percentage decrease in Area = ×100 = 20%
8000
1
Ans. (c) : Probability of husband's selection = Perimeter of Rectangle = 2(100 +80) = 360 mtr
7
Perimeter of square = 4×80 = 320 mtr.
1
Probability that husband not selected = 1– = 6 / 7 360 − 320
7 Percentage decrease in perimeter = ×100
Probability of wife's selection = 1/5 360
1 = 11.11% = 11%
Probability the wife is not selected = 1- = 4/5
(100 ) + ( 80 )
2 2
5 Diagonal of Rectangle = = 16400
1 4 1 6
Probability that only one is selected = × + × = 20 41 ≅ 128.
7 5 5 7
4 6 Diagonal of Square = 80 2 = 113.
= +
35 35 128 − 113
Percentage decrease in diagonal = ×100
10 128
= = 2/7
35 Thus (2) and (3) are correct.
EPFO 2004 74 YCT
Directions (For the next four items): Ans. (c) : Total foreign investment inflows in 1996 =
Refer to the graphs given below and answer the 2000 $ Mn.
items that follow: NAFTA Contribution = 35% or 8000
35
= × 8000 = 700 $ Mn
100
20
700 + × 100
In 1997 20% increase = 700
100
20
= 700 + × 700 = 840 $Mn
100
88. In which year is the ratio of foreign investment
approvals to foreign investment inflows
highest?
(a) 1992 (b) 1993
(c) 1994 (d) 1995
Ans. (a) : From the graph it can be observed that ratio
of foreign investment approval to foreign investment
inflow was highest in 1995.
Foreign investment Approval (1995) = Approx 10000 $
Mn
in flow (1995) = 2000 $ Mn.
89. Which one of the following is not a tributary of
the river Godavari?
(a) Koyna (b) Manjra
(c) Pranhita (d) Wardha
85. What is the contribution of EU in the foreign
Ans. (a) : The Koyna river is a tributary of Krishan river.
investment inflows for the year 1996 in US $
It originates Mahabaleshwar in Maharashtra. Mangra,
Mn.?
Pranhita and Wartna, are tributaries of river Godavari.
(a) 1840
90. Which one of the following is not a correct
(b) 2000
statement?
(c) 460 (a) The height of the Western half of the Himalayas
(d) Cannot be determined with the given data is greater than that of the Eastern half
Ans. (c) : Total Foreign investment inflow in 1996 = (b) The Himalayas are young fold mountains
2000$ Mn (c) The Shivalik ranges are made of
Contribution of EU = 23% of 2000 $Mn unconsolidated river deposits
23 (d) The Himalayas are wide in Kashmir and
= × 2000$ Mn = 460 $ Mn. become narrow towards the East
100
Ans. (a) : The Himalayas are young fold mountains.
86. What are the foreign investment approvals
These mountain ranges run is a West-East direction
from SAARC, ASEAN and EU combined from Indus to the Brahmaputra. Their width varies from
together in the year 1996 (in US $ Mn.)? 400 km in Kashmir to 150 km in Arunachal Pradesh.
(a) 2240 (b) 5000 The attitudinal variations are greater in the eastern half
(c) 3500 (d) 2600 than those in western half. The Shivaliks as are
Ans. (a) : outermost ranges of Himalayas composed of
Total Foreign investment Approval in 1996 = 7000 $ Mn unconsolidated sentiments brought down by rivers form
Foreign investment Approval (SAARC, ASEAN, EU the main Himalayan ranges locater farther north.
combined) = 28% of 8000 $ Mn Thus statement (a) is incorrect.
91. Which one of the following is the correct
28
= × 8000 = 2240 $ Mn statement?
100 (a) Spring tides occur on the full moon day
87. If the net foreign investments inflows for the (b) Neap tides occur on the new moon day only
year 1997 were to grow by 20% and it the (c) The west coast of India experiences tides four
proportion of inflows was to remain the same times a day
as in case of the approvals for the year 1996, (d) Tides do not occur in the gulfs
what would be the foreign investment inflows Ans. (a) : The regular rise and fall of the Oceans water
from NAFTA (in US $ Mn.)? are known as tides. When the water rise to its highest
(a) 800 (b) 500 level covering much of the shore, it is high tide. When
(c) 840 (d) 920 the water falls to its lowest level, it is at low tide.
EPFO 2004 75 YCT
Spring tides occurs during full moon and new moon Codes:
day. (a) A B C D
Only statement (a) is correct rest all statements are 2 3 1 5
incorrect. (b) A B C D
92. Which one of the following pairs in not 4 5 3 1
correctly matched? (c) A B C D
City River 2 5 3 1
(a) Ahmedabad : Sabarmati (d) A B C D
(b) Hyderabad : Musi 4 3 1 5
(c) Lucknow : Gomti Ans. (b) : The correct match is :-]
(d) Surat : Narmada Institute City
Ans. (d) : The correct match is :- Rashtriya Sanskrit Vidyapeeth - Tirupati
City River Maharishi Sandipani Rashtriya Ved
Ahmedabad - Sabarmati Vidya Pratisthan - Ujjain
Hyderabad - Musi Central Institute of Indian Language - Mysore
Lucknow - Gomti Central Institute or English and
Surat - Tapi (Not Narmada) Foreign language - Hydrabad
93. Match List-I (Famous Place) with List-II 95. Consider the following statement:
(Country) and select the correct answer using
the codes given below the Lists: 1. Kaziranga National Park is a World
List-I List-II Heritage Site recognized by the UNESCO.
(Famous Place) (Country) 2. Kaziranga National Park is a home to sloth
bear and hoolock gibbon.
A. Alexandria 1. Turkey
Which of the statements given above is/are
B. Blackpool Pleasure 2. Great Britain
correct?
Beach
(a) 1 only (b) 2 only
C. Constantinople 3. Italy
(c) Both 1 and 2 (d) Neither 1 nor 2
D. Florence 4. Greece
5. Egypt Ans. (c) : Kaziranga National was inscribed on the
Codes: World Heritage List in 1985 for its large populations of
one-horned, rhinos, tigers, elephants, bears and many
(a) A B C D
birds.
1 3 4 2
Kaziranga is home to one horned rhinoceros along with
(b) A B C D it, it is breeding ground of elephants, wild water buffalo
5 2 1 3 and Swampdeer Sloth bear and hoolock gibbon are also
(c) A B C D found in Kaziranga National Park.
1 2 4 3
96. Who among the following are the Bharat Ratna
(d) A B C D recipients?
5 3 1 2 1. Amartya San
Ans. (b) : 2. Gulzari Lal Nanda
Famous Country 3. M.S. Swaminathan
Alexandria - Egypt 4. Satyajit Ray
Blackpool Pleasure Beach - Great Britain Select the correct answer using the codes given
Constantinople - Turkey below:
Florence - Italy Code:
94. Match List-I (Institute) with List-II (City) and (a) 1 and 2 (b) 3 and 4
select the correct answer using the codes given (c) 1, 2 and 4 (d) 1, 2, 3 and 4
below the Lists:
Ans. (c) : Amartya Sen, Gulzari Lal Nanda and Satyajit
List-I List-II
Ray have received Bharat Ratna awards while
(Institute) (City) M.S.Swaminathan has been awarded with Padma
A. Rashtriya Sanskrait 1. Hyderabad Vibhushan award.
Vidyapeeth
97. Consider the following statements:
B. Maharishi Sandipani 2. Varanasi
1. The members of the Employees Provident
Rashthishthan Veda Fund and exempted provident Funds are
Vidya Prathishthan eligible for the Employees' Deposit-Linked
Beach Insurance Scheme.
C. Central Institute of 3. Mysore 2. Employees Pension Scheme 1995 was
Indian Language introduced for the industrial workers.
D. Central Institute of 4. Tirupati 3. Coverage under the Employees Provident
English and Foreign Fund and Miscellaneous Provisions Act is
Languages restricted to establishments employing 20
5. Ujjain or more persons.
EPFO 2004 76 YCT
Which of the statements given above is/are (a) not exceeding six months at a time during
correct? proclamation of emergency but not exceeding in
(a) 1 and 2 (b) 1, 2 and 3 any case a period of three months after the
(c) 1 and 3 (d) 3 only proclamation of emergency has ceased to operate
Ans. (b) : The members of Employees Provident fund (b) not exceeding one year at a time during
and exempted provident funds are eligible for the proclamation of emergency but not exceeding in
any case a period of six months after the
Employees deposit linked Insurance Schema.
proclamation of emergency has ceased to operate
Employees Pension Scheme 1995 was introduced for (c) not exceeding one year at a time during
the industries workers. The coverage under EPF is for proclamation of emergency nut not exceeding in
establishments employing 20 More Persons. any case a period of three months after the
98. Which one of the following statements is not proclamation of emergency has ceased to operate
correct? (d) not exceeding six months at a time during
(a) The Special Marriage Act, 1954 extends to all proclamation of emergency but not exceeding in
the states and Union Territories of India any case a period on one month after the
(b) The Hindu Marriage Act, 1955 applies to proclamation of emergency has ceased to operate
Buddhists, Jains and Sikhs in addition to Ans. (b) : The term of Lok Sabha may be extended
Hindus beyond its normal terms by a law of Parliament for one
(c) The Hindu Succession Act, 1956 recognizes year at a time during proclamation of national emergency
the right of women to inherit property of an but not exceeding in any case a period of six months after
intestate equally with men the proclamation of emergency has ceases to operate.
(d) Muslims, Christians and Parsis in India have 101. Consider the following statements:
no adoption laws and can take a child under 1. The Indian parliament is not sovereign and
the Guardians and Wards Act, 1890 only the legislation passed by it is subject to
under foster care judicial review.
Ans. (a) : The special marriage Act 1854 extends to all 2. In India, the Fundamental Right and
states and union territories of India except Jammu & Directive principles of State Policy are
Kashmir. enforceable by the courts.
Rest all the statement are correct. Which of the statements given above is/are
99. Consider the following statements: correct?
1. An amendment of the Constitution of India (a) 1 only (b) 2 only
can be initiated by the introduction of a (c) Both 1 and 2 (d) Neither 1 nor 2
Bill for the purpose in Lok Sabha only. Ans. (a) : The Indian parliament is not sovereign and
2. A Bill providing for the formation of new the legislation passed by it is subject to judicial review.
States and for the alteration of boundaries In India there is constitution sovereignty rather than
or names of existing States in India can be Parliamentary sovereignty. In India fundamental rights
introduced in the parliament only on the are justiciable thus enforceable by courts however
recommendation of the President on India. directive principles of state policy are not justiciable
3. In India, a Bill seeking to amend the thus not enforceable by courts.
representation of States in parliament has 102. Match List-I (Outstanding Sports-persons at
to be passed by a simple majority of both the Athens Olympics) with List-II (Country)
Houses of parliament. and select the correct answer using the codes
Which of the statements given above is/are given below the Lists:
correct? List-I List-II
(a) 1 and 2 (b) 2 only (Outstanding Sports (Country)
(c) 1 and 3 (d) 1, 2 and 3 persons at the Athens
Ans. (b) :Any amendment of constitution of India can Olympics)
be initiated by the introduction a Bill for the purpose A. Michael Phelps 1. Belarus
whether in Lok Sabha or Rajya Sabha. B. Ian Thorpe 2. United States
As per Articles 3 of the constitution a bill for the Of America
formation of new states and for the alteration of C. Yulia Nesterenko 3. Australia
boundaries or names of existing states in India can be D. Nicolas Massu 4. Chile
introduced in the Parliament only on the 5. Sweden
recommendation of President of India. (a) A B C D
The Bill sacking of amend the representation of states in 2 4 1 3
Parliament has to be passed by special majority and (b) A B C D
with consent of half the states. 1 3 5 4
100. Which one of the following is the correct (c) A B C D
statement? 2 3 1 4
The term of Lok Sabha can be extended by the (d) A B C D
Parliament for a period 1 4 5 3
EPFO 2004 77 YCT
Ans. (c) : The correct match is :- 107. Which one of the following statements is not
The Outstanding sportsperson Country correct?
at the Athens Olympics (a) Lord Wellesley set up the first three Indian
Michael Phelps - United State of America Universities
Ian Thorpe - Australia (b) Lord Dalhousie introduced telegraph in India
Yulia Nesterenko - Sweden (c) Lord Ripon introduced a system of local self
Nicolas Massu - Chile government both for towns and country-side
103. Who won the 100-metre race for men in the areas
Athens Olympics in August 2004? (d) Lord Curzon presided over the Delhi Durbar
(a) Maurice Greene (b) Jastine Gatlin of 1903
(c) Asafa powell (d) Francis Obekwelu Ans. (a) : First three Indian Universities were setup
Ans. (b) : Jastine Gatlin of United State of America during time of Lord Dalhousie Telegram was also
won the 100-metre race for men in the Athens Olympics introduced during the tenure of Lord Dalhousie. Lord
in August 2004 Ripon introduced a system of local self government
both for towns and country-side area. Lord Curzon
104. Who among the following Indian film presided over the Delhi Durbar of 1903.
directors/actors was honoured with the order
of the British Empire (OBE) in year 2004? 108. Which one of the following is the correct
(a) Naseeruddin Shan (b) Amitabh Bachchan chronological sequence of the given dynasties of
(c) Shekhar Kapoor (d) Om Puri Delhi Sultanate?
Ans. (d) : Om Puri, the India actor was honoured with (a) Sayyids - Khaljis - Lodis - Tughlaqs
the order of the British Empire in year 2004. He was (b) Khaljis - Tughlaqs - Sayyids - Lodis
first India actor to get this awards. (c) Khaljis - Sayyids - Lodis - Tughlaqs
105. Match List-I (Battles) with List-II (Fought (d) Tughlaqs - Khaljis - Sayyids - Lodis
Between) and select the correct answer using Ans. (b) :
the codes given below the lists: Dynasty Period
List-I List-II Khaljis - 1290-1320
(Battles) (Fought Between) Tughlaqs - 1320-1414
A. Battle of Chausa 1. Babar and Rajputs Sayyids - 1414-1451
B. Battle of Ghagra 2. Humayun and Sher Lodis - 1451-1526
Khan 109. Consider the following statements:
C. Battle of Kanwah 3. Babar and Afghans of According to the Mountbatten Plan
Bihar and Bengal 1. The Union of India and Pakistan were to
D. Battle of Talikota 4. Vijaynagar ruler and be granted freedom not later than June,
the Deccan Sultanates 1948.
Codes: 2. The Legislative Assembly of Sindh was to
(a) A B C D decide whether it wanted to join the
2 1 3 4 Constituent Assemble of India or not.
(b) A B C D 3. Baluchistan was to decide whether it
4 3 1 2 wanted to stay with the Indian Union or
(c) A B C D become separate.
2 3 1 4 Which of the statements given above is/are
(d) A B C D correct?
4 1 3 2 (a) 1 and 2 (b) 2 and 3
Ans. (c) : The correct match is:- (c) 2 only (d) 1 and 3
Battles Fought Between Ans. (a) : As per, the provisions of Mountbatten Plan
Battle of Chausa - Humayun and Sher Khan British India was to be partioned into two dominions,
Battle of Ghagra - Babar and Afghans of Bihar India and Pakistan. The Union of India and Pakistan.
and Bengal The Union of India and Pakistan were to be granted
Battle of Kanwah - Babar and Rajputs freedom not later than June, 1948. The legislative
Battle of Talikota - Vijaynagar ruler and the assembly of sind would decide whether to join the
Deccan Sultanates constituent assembly of India or not. It decided to go to
106. When Akbar besieged the Fort of Chitor, who Pakistan. Thus options (a) is correct.
among the following defended it for four months? 110. Why did Motilal Nehru and Chittaranjan Das
(a) Uday Singh (b) Rana Pratap form a separate group known as Swaraj Party
(c) Bhama Shah (d) Jaimal within the Congress?
Ans. (d) : Akbar as part of his expansionist policy (a) They were not satisfied with the progress
besieged the Sisodia capital of Chitor, then Sisodia made by the Congress in achieving Swaraj
Ruler Rana Udai Singh fled and placed the Fort under (b) It was their reaction to Mahatma Gandhi's
the command or Jaimal Rathore who defended it for sudden decision to suspend the Non-
four months. Cooperation Movement
EPFO 2004 78 YCT
(c) They were interested in forming more active A+B+D>A+B+C
party with revolutionary ideas Thus, D > C
(d) They felt that their opinions and views were From given facts it cannot be determined whether B has
not given due importance in the Congress greater money or C has greater money.
Sessions 114. A printer uses a total number of 4893 digits in
Ans. (a) : Motilal Nehru and Chittaranjan Das form a order to number all the pages of his book. He
separate group known as Swaraj Party as they were not starts with the digit 1 for the first page of the
satisfied with the progress made by the congress in book. How many pages does the book have?
achieving Swaraj. when Mahatma Gandhi abandoned (a) 4892 (b) 2322
the Non- cooperation Movement in 1922 following
(c) 2100 (d) 1500
Chauri-Chaura incident there were numerous arguments
among congress party leader in response to this. Ans. (d) : From page 1 to Page 9 total digits = 9
Two groups 'No changers' wanted to bycott of the From Page 10 to page 11 total digits = 2×90 = 180
legislature to continue where 'Prochangers' wanted to join from page 100 to page 999 total digits = 3×900 = 2700
the council and obstruct the British government from Total digits from page 1 to page 999 = 9 + 180 + 2700
within. Thus prochangers founded the 'Swaraj Party. = 2882
111. In the year 1919, what was the reason for Remaining numbers will be 4 digits or more
Mahatma Gandhi to warn the Viceroy that a than 4 digits number
countrywide Satyagraha would be launched? Remaining digits = 4893 – 2883 = 2004
(a) He wanted the Government to withdraw the
2004
Rowlatt Act immediately Total pages of 4 digits number = = 501 page
(b) He was forcing the British rulers to be 4
sensitive to the Khilafat Movement Thus, total number of pages 1 + 9 + 900 + 501
(c) He wanted the Government to abolish the = 1500 page
Zamindari System to alleviate the miseries of Directions (For the next two items):
peasants Based* on the information given below, answer the
(d) He was forcing the British rulers to give at two items which follow it:
least the dominion status to India to make Five ladies A, B, C, D, E go to a cinema hall
Home Rule possible along with their husbands P, Q, R, S, T (not
Ans. (a) : In 1919 Mahamatma Gandhi warned the necessarily in that order). Seats numbered
viceroy that a countrywide Satyagrah would be from 1 to 10 are reserved for these 5 married
launched if the government did not withdraw the couples. Each of the five ladies sits on the seat
Rawlaft Act. immediately to the left of her husband.
112. Who among the following introduced the (i) The couple E and S occupy the seats at the
celebration of Ganesh Chaturthi and Shivaji extreme right.
Festivals to bring the Indian society together (ii) C, who is not sitting at the extreme left and
and inspire patriotic feelings among the Q, who is not sitting on the seat number 2, are
people? not husband and wife.
(a) Bal Gangadhar Tilak (iii) B and R are celebrating their wedding
(b) Gopal Krishna Gokhale anniversary and hence are sitting at the centre.
(c) Jyotirao Govindras Phule (iv) A and T are not husband and wife.
(d) Mahadev Govind Ranade (v) D is sitting on the seat number 3.
Ans. (a) : Bal gangadhar Tilak populary known as Direction for Question number 115 & 116.
Lokmanya Tilak initiated the public celebration of 1 2 3 4 5 6 7 8 9 10
Ganesh Chaturthi and shivaji festivals to bring unity
among Indian society and inspire patriotic feeling • • • • • • • • • •
among the people. From given conditions follows arrangement is done.
113. There are four persons A, B, C and D. The 1 2 3 4 5 6 7 8 9 10
total amount of money with A and B together is • • • • • • • • • •
equal to the total amount of money with C and 115. Who is sitting on the seat number 7?
D together. But the total amount of money with (a) A (b) B
B and D together is more than the amount of (c) C (d) E
money with A and C together. The amount of
Ans. (c) : Lady C is sitting at seat number 7.
money with A is more than that with B. Who
has the least amount of money? 116. If in the last condition (v), it is stated that D sits
(a) B (b) C on the seat number 7, then who will sit on the
(c) D (d) Cannot be determined seat number 4?
Ans. (d) : A + B = C + D .......... (i) (a) P (b) T
B + D = A + C ............ (ii) (c) P or T (d) Cannot be determined
A > B ............. (iii) Ans. (b) : If E sits on seat number 7 then T will seat on
from equation (ii) and (iii)] seat number 4.
EPFO 2004 79 YCT
117. A 2-member committee is to be constituted out 119. Match List-I (Author) with List-II (Book) and
of 4 men and 2 women. What is the probability select the correct answer using the codes given
that a committee thus formed will have exactly below the Lists:
one woman? List-I List-II
1 1 (Author) (Book)
(a) (b)
3 4 A. Bill Clinton 1. Between Hope
7 8 and History
(c) (d)
15 15 B. Henry Kissinger 2. Living History
Ans. (d) : Number of Men = 4 C. Nelson Mandela 3. Diplomacy
Number of women = 2 D. Hillary Clinton 4. Long walk to Freedom
of 6 persons 1 ways to make Committee of Codes:
n! (a) A B C D
2= = 6! 2 4 3 1
( n – r )!r! (b) A B C D
6! 1 3 4 2
= = 15 ways
( 6 – 2 ) !2! (c) A B C D
of 4 men probability of Choosing 2 3 4 1
4! (d) A B C D
1 man = =4 1 4 3 2
( 4 – 1)!1!
Ans. (b) : The correct match is :-
of 2 women Probability of choosing
(Author) (Book)
2! Bill Clinton - Between Hope and History
1 women = =2
1!1! Henry Kissinger - Diplomacy
Probable ways = 4×2 = 8 Nelson Mandela - Long walk to Freedom
8 Hillary Clinton - Living History
Probability to include 1 women =
15 120. Match List-I (Distinguished Women) with List-
118. Match List-I (Distinguished Women) with List- II (Known As/Area) and select the correct
II (Known As) and select the correct answer answer using the codes given below the Lists:
using the codes given below the Lists: List-I List-II
List-I List-II (Distinguished Women) (Known As/Area)
(Distinguished Women) (Known As) A. Shanta Sinha 1. Film Direction
A. Maria Sharapova 1. Human rights B. Kalpana Lajmi 2. Community
activist Leadership
B. Aung San Suu Kyi 2. Political leader C. Romila Thapar 3. Dancer
C. Asma Jahangir 3. Singer D. Radha Reddy 4. Historian
D. Norah Jones 4. Sportsperson 5. Business-woman
Codes: Codes:
(a) A B C D (a) A B C D
1 2 3 4 2 1 4 3
(b) A B C D (b) A B C D
4 3 2 1 4 3 5 1
(c) A B C D (c) A B C D
1 3 2 4 2 3 4 1
(d) A B C D (d) A B C D
4 2 1 3 4 1 5 3
Ans. (d) : The correct match is : Ans. (a) : The correct match is:-
(Distinguished Women) (Known As) (Distinguished Women) (Known As/Area)
Maria Sharapova - Sportsperson Shanta Sinha - Community Leadership
Aung San Suu Kyi - Political leader Kalpana Lajmi - Film Direction
Asma Jahangir - Human rights activist Romila Thapar - Historian
Norah Jones - Singer Radha Reddy - Dancer
EPFO 2004 80 YCT
Enforcement Officer/Account Officer in Employees
Provident Funds Organisation (EPFO) 2002
SOLVED PAPER
PART-A 4. A little younger / to myself we, both were /
devoted to cricket and boating / No error.
SPOTTING ERRORS (a) A little younger
Directions (for the next five items): (b) to myself we, both were
(i) In this section a number of sentences are given. Each (c) devoted to cricket and boating
sentence has three underlined parts, indicated by (a), (b) (d) No error
and (c). Read each sentence to find out whether there is Ans. (b) : In the given sentence part (b) has error
an error. If you find an error in any one of the underlined correct sentence A little younger and I, we both were
parts (a, b, c), indicate your response by blackening the devoted to cricket and boating.
letter related to that part in the Answer Sheet provided. If
5. He had no sooner / arrived than / he was asked
a sentence has no error, indicated this by blackening (d) to leave again / No error.
which stands for "No error".
(a) He had no sooner
(ii) Errors may belong to grammar, usage or idiom.
(b) arrived than
Examples P and Q have been solved for you.
(c) he was asked to leave again
P. My friend and myself study together
(d) No error
(a) (b)
during holidays No error Ans. (a) : In the given sentence part (a) has error
(c) (d) he had no sooner → no sooner had he
Q. The rice from Dehradun is more superior Directions (for the next Three items):
(a) (b) Select the most suitable word from (a), (b), (c) and (d)
to that of Saharanpur No error given below each sentence to fill in the blanks.
(c) (d) 6. The Rajputs always fought _______ the last
man.
Explanation : The correct answer for P is letter 'd'
(a) upto (b) till (c) to (d) for
because the sentence has no mistake in it. The correct
answer for Q is 'b' because the mistake in the sentence is Ans. (c) : The Rajputs always fought to the last man.
in the part carrying the letter 'b'. Fight to the last man is an idiom.
1. Choose only / such friends / that you can trust / 7. I have been surfing internet _________ the last
No error. two hours.
(a) Choose only (a) since (b) for
(b) such friends (c) from (d) right from
(c) that you can trust Ans. (b) : I have been surfing internet for the last two
(d) No error hours. for is used for a period of time since is used for a
point of time.
Ans. (c) : In the given sentence part (c) has error.
8. You should be considerate ______ your
Trust → Trust on employees and I assure you of your success in
2. While he was digging sand / a large mass fell / every walk of life.
and buried him completely / No error. (a) for (b) to
(a) While he was digging sand (c) upon (d) on
(b) a large mass fell Ans. (b) : You should be considerate to your employees
(c) and buried him completely and I assure you at your success in every walk of life.
(d) No error Preposition to/of is with word considerate.
Ans. (d) : No error Directions (for the five items which follow):
3. The book is well printed and attractively bound Match words in List I with the words/group of words in
/ making altogether / an attractive volume / No the List-II such that they convey the same meaning or
error sense. Select the correct answer using the codes given
(a) The book is well printed and attractively below the lists.
bound 9. List-I List-II
(b) making altogether A. Obsequious 1. Dishonest
(c) an attractive volume B. Obstreperous 2. Having little or no money
(d) No error C. Inveterate 3. Too willing to obey
D. Impecunious 4. Noisy and unruly
Ans. (b) : In the given sentence part (b) has error.
5. Deep-rooted
Making altogether → making it altogether 6. Fearless
EPFO 2002 81 YCT
Codes: Ans. (b) :
(a) A B C D Word Meaning
3 4 5 2
Dilettante - A person who studies or does
(b) A B C D
something without serious
2 6 5 3
interest or understanding
(c) A B C D
3 6 1 2 Profligate - Wasteful
(d) A B C D Prescient - A person with futuristic
2 4 1 3 vision
Ans. (a) : Parochial - To show narrow interest
Word Meaning/sense 12. List-I List-II
obsequious To willing to obey A. Iconoclast 1. Immature and
obstreperous Noisy and unruly inexperienced
Inveterate Deep-rooted B. Humdinger 2. Person who attacks
Impecunious Having little or no money established customs
10. List-I List-II C. Martinet 3. Excellent person or thing
A. Cadaverous 1. Falling to lower moral level D. Callow 4. Popular leader
B. Prodigal 2. Jubilation 5. Mysterious plot
C. Decadence 3. Something done or given 6. Person who imposes
unnecessarily strict discipline
D. Gratuitous 4. Looking very pale Codes:
5. Stout or well-built
(a) A B C D
6. Extravagant
6 3 4 1
Codes:
(a) A B C D (b) A B C D
4 5 1 6 2 5 6 3
(b) A B C D (c) A B C D
1 6 2 3 6 5 4 3
(c) A B C D (d) A B C D
4 6 1 3 2 3 6 1
(d) A B C D Ans. (d) :
1 5 2 6 Word Meaning
Ans. (c) : Iconoclast - Person who attacks
Word Meaning/sense established customs
Cadaverous looking very pole
Humfinger - Excellent person or thing
Protigal Extravagant
Decatence falling to lower moral level Martinet - Person who imposes strict
Gratuitous Something done or given discipline
unnecessarily Callow - Immature and inexperienced
11. List-I List-II 13. List-I List-II
A. Dilettante 1. A person with futuristic A. Adjunct 1. Same family relationship
vision B. Contiguous 2. Diametrically opposite
B. Profligate 2. Miserly places
C. Prescient 3. A person who studies or C. Consanguine 3. A person who has
does something without withdrawn from society
serious interest or D. Recluse 4. Enthusiastic person
understanding
5. Thing that is less important
D. Parochial 4. To show narrow interest
and not essential
5. Wasteful
6. Neighbouring
6. Pungent remarks
Codes: Codes:
(a) A B C D (a) A B C D
6 4 2 3 5 1 2 3
(b) A B C D (b) A B C D
3 5 1 4 4 6 1 5
(c) A B C D (c) A B C D
6 5 2 4 5 6 1 3
(d) A B C D (d) A B C D
3 4 1 5 4 1 2 5
EPFO 2002 82 YCT
Ans. (c) : COMPREHENSION
Word Meaning/sense Directions:
Adjunct - A thing that is less important In this section you have one short passage. After the
and not essential passage you will find several questions based on the
Contiguous - next to each other passage. First, read passage and answer the questions
neighbouring based on it. Examples I and J are solved for you.
Consanguine - Same family relationship PASSAGE
In our approach to life, be it pragmatic or otherwise, a
Recluse - A person who has withdrawn basic fact that confronts us squarely and unmistakably is
from society the desire for peace, security and happiness. Different
Directions (for the Five items which follows): forms of life at different levels of existence make up the
14. The world is one's ayster teeming denizens of this earth of ours. And, no matter
(a) One feels that nobody in the world would whether they belong to the higher groups such as human
help him/her beings or to the lower groups such as animals, all beings
(b) The feeling one gets when he lands in an primarily seek peace, comfort and security. Life is as
unfamiliar country dear to a mute creature as it is to a man. Even the
(c) One is able to enjoy all the pleasures and lowliest insect strives for protection against dangers that
opportunities that life has to offer threaten its life. Just as each one of us wants to live and
(d) When one has an uphill task to perform not to die, so do all other creatures.
Ans. (c) : Idiom - The world is one's oyster I. The author's main point is that
Meaning - All opportunities are open to someone, one is (a) different forms of life are found on earth
able to enjoy all the pleasures and opportunities that life (b) different levels of existence are possible in
has to offer. nature
15. To go for the jugular (c) peace and security are the chief goals of all
living beings
(a) To work very hard for the success
(d) even the weakest creature struggles to
(b) to make a fierce destructive attack on the preserve its life
weakest point in an opponent's argument
J. Which one of the following assumptions or
(c) To go in for the costliest thing
steps is essential in developing the author's
(d) To go in for dishonest means position?
Ans. (b) : Idiom- To go for the jugular (a) All forms of life have a single overriding goal
Meaning - To make a serious effort to defeat someone, (b) The will to survive of a creature is identified
to make a fierce destructive attack on the weakest point with a desire for peace
in an opponent's argument. (c) All beings are divided into higher and lower
16. To follow the primrose path groups
(a) To follow one's objectives very steadfastly (d) A parallel is drawn between happiness and
(b) To go on wandering life, and pain and death
(c) To trek to the mountains Explanation:
(d) To go in for pursuit of pleasure or an easy life I. The idea which represents the author's main point is
Ans. (d) : Idiom- To follow the primrose path. 'peace and security are the chief goals of all living beings',
Meaning-To go in for pursuit of pleasure or an easy life. which is response (c). So 'c' is the correct answer.
17. A bee in one's bonnet J. The best assumption underlying the passage is 'The
(a) To be very enterprising will to survive of a creature is identified with a desire
for peace', which is response (b). So 'b' is the correct
(b) To be very timid and shy
answer.
(c) To have an impractical idea
(d) To have a particular idea which occupies PASSAGE
one's thoughts continually When you buy a car, examine carefully the important
features of the model you are considering Many a buyer
Ans. (d) : Idiom - A bee in one's bonnet
of the latest models has got into trouble by buying a car
Meaning - To have a particular idea which occupies too broad or too long for his garage. Furthermore, a long
one's thought continuously. car is much harder to manoeuvre in traffic and much
18. To take a rain-check more difficult to park. Another feature is the comfort
(a) To decline an offer but promise to accept it afforded. Are the seats nice and durably upholstered? Is
later there enough glass area to give the driver a good view in
(b) To go through the weather report all directions, particularly to the rear? It should be
remembered that the heavier and more powerful a car is,
(c) To proceed on sightseeing
the more expensive it will be to operate. High powered
(d) To take to farming as a source of livelihood motors require expensive high-octane petrol. The greater
Ans. (a) : Idiom - To take a rain-check weight means greater tyre wear and enlarged brakes. The
Meaning-To decline an offer but promise to accept it old cliche is still true; it is not the initial cost but the
later. upkeep which matters!
EPFO 2002 83 YCT
19. According to this passage, the two factors that 24. I rather like the quaint little house at the end of
the buyer of a new car should keep in mind are the street
(a) its price and size (a) old (b) quiet
(b) its model and upholstery (c) unusual (d) haunted
(c) its size and the comfort it offers Ans. (c) :
(d) its upholstery and glass area Word Synonyms
Ans. (c) : As per author while buying a car a person Quaint Unusual, attractive
should consider its size and the comfort it offers. Old Aged, gray
20. The size of the car should be in accordance Haunted Cursed, Ghostly,
with Quiet Silent, noiseless
(a) the money one can afford to pay
25. If she continues to spend her time in such a
(b) the size of the garage the buyer has
frivolous manner, she will fail in her
(c) the width of the road where the buyer lives examinations
(d) the volume of traffic on the road (a) frightful (b) leisurely
Ans. (b) : The size of the car should be in accordance (c) non-serious (d) calculated
with the size of the garage of the buyer as some buyer
get into trouble by buying a car to broad or too long. Ans. (c) :
Word Synonym
21. The writer favours a car with a wide glass area
so that the driver can Frivolous Senseless, petty, foolish,
(a) enjoy the scene outside while driving non-serious
(b) have a good view of the rear Frightful Unpleasant, very bad
(c) roll down the glasspanes to get enough fresh Leisurely Without hurry, an action
air which is done in a relaxed
(d) display his beautiful upholstery with pride way
Ans. (b) : The writer favours a car with wide glass area Calculated Deliberate, premeditated
so that it give the driver a good view all directions 26. Sanguine as he is in his attitude to life and its
particularly rear mirror. problems, he cannot but be noticed wherever
22. It is very expensive to maintain a large car he goes.
because it (a) optimistic (b) enthusiastic
(a) is heavy (c) realistic (d) dispassionate
(b) requires more space for parking Ans. (a) :
(c) needs changing its tyres more frequently Word Synonym
(d) needs more durable upholstery Sanguine Optimistic
Ans. (c) : Large high powered motors require expensive Enthusiastic Passionate, Eager
high-octane petrol. Also the greater weight means Realistic Practical, Pragmatic
greater tyre wear and enlarged brakes. Thus there will Dispassionate Impassive, emotion less
be frequent changing of tyres.
27. One's remonstration against social ills has to be
23. While buying a new car, one should specially consistent to be fruitful.
consider its (a) outrage (b) demonstration
(a) price (b) maintenance cost
(c) protest (d) criticism
(c) upholstery (d) brakes
Ans. (c) :
Ans. (b) : While buying a new car, one should specially
consider its maintenance cost. The old cliche is still true Word Synonym
it is not the initial cost but the upkeep which matters. Remonstration Protest, Argue
Outrage Anger, shock
SYNONYMS Demonstration Manifestation, confirmation
Directions (for the next Four items):
Criticism Confirmation, denunciation
In this section you find a number of sentences, parts of
which are underlined. You may also find only a group of ANTONYMS
words which is underlined. For each underlined part, Directions (for the next Three items):
four words/phrases are listed below. Choose the In this section each item consists of a word or a phrase
word/phrase nearest in meaning to the underlined part. which is underlined in the sentence given. It is followed
Example E is solved for you. by four words or phrases. Select the word or phrase
E. His style is quite transparent which is closest to the opposite in meaning of the
(a) verbose (b) involved underlined word or phrase.
(c) lucid (d) witty Example F has been solved for you
Explanation: In item E the word "lucid" is nearest in F. Lucy is a smart girl
meaning to the word "transparent". (a) lazy (b) active
So 'c' is the correct answer. (c) indecent (d) casual
EPFO 2002 84 YCT
Explanation: The word which is nearest to the opposite 32. Nalanda University flourished during the reign
in meaning of the underlined word. "smart is lazy". So 'a' of which of the following rulers?
is the correct answer. (a) Chandragupta Maurya (b) Ashoka
28. The advice rendered to him sounded to be quite (c) Kanishka (d) Harsha
sagacious. Ans. (d) : Nalanda University was established by
(a) stupid (b) shallow Kumaragupta the Gupta ruler. University flourished under
(c) impracticable (d) insincere the patronage of the Gupta empire in the 5th and 6th
Ans. (a) : centuries and later under Harsha, the emperor of Kannauj
Word Antonym 33. Recently, Cannes Film Festival was held in
Sagacious Stupid, foolish (a) Switzerland (b) France
Shallow Profound, in-depth (c) Italy (d) England
Impracticable workable, feasible Ans. (b) : The Cannes Film Festival is an annual Film
Insincere sincere Festival held in Cannes, France, which previews new
29. The Indian cultural fair was held at Rome in a Films of all genres including documentaries from all
grandiose manner. around the world.
(a) unobtrusive (b) unimposing 34. The device to convert alternating current into
(c) unimpressive (d) simple direct current is
(a) transformer (b) rectifier
Ans. (c) :
(c) alternator (d) condenser
Word Antonym
Grandiose Unimpressive, humble Ans. (b) : A rectifier is an electrical device that
converts alternating current into direct current. A
Unobtrusive Bold, Extrovert
transformer is used to step up step down the voltage. An
Unimposing Significant, important alternator converts mechanical energy to electrical
Simple Difficulty, complicated energy in form of alternating current. A condenser is a
30. His voice sounded haughty when I spoke to him heat exchanger used to condense a gaseous substance
over the telephone. into a liquid state through cooling.
(a) pleasant (b) humble 35. Shri Kiran Karnik is the
(c) soft (d) cheerful (a) President of NASSCOM
Ans. (b) : (b) Chairman of the Board of Control of Cricket
Word Antonyms for India
Haughtily Modesti Humble (c) Chairman of Maharashtra State Public
Pleasant Harsh, Boring Service Commission
Soft Hard, Firm (d) Managing Director of Engineers India Ltd.
Cheerful Sad Ans. (a) : Shri Kiran Karnik was the president of
NASSCOM when question was asked. Current
PART-B President of NASSCOM is Debjani Ghosh.
31. Which of the following statements is not 36. Knesset is the name of the Parliament of
correct (a) Norway (b) Sweden
(a) The 42nd Amendment extended the term of (c) Israel (d) Spain
Lok Sabha and State Legislative Assemblies
from 5 years to 6 years Ans. (c) : Knesset is the name for Israel's parliament
located in the capital Jerusalem.
(b) The President can dissolve the Lok Sabha on
the advice of the Prime Minister 37. Combustion of a candle is a
(c) Money Bills cannot be introduced in the (a) photochemical reaction
Rajya Sabha (b) exothermic reaction
(d) One third members of the Rajya Sabha retire (c) physical change
on the expiry of every third year (d) endothermic reaction
Ans. (d) : The 42nd Amendment Act is also known as Ans. (b) : Combustion of a candle is an exothermic
mini constitution as this act brought large number of reaction. An exothermic reaction is a chemical reaction
amendments to the constitution. It raised the tenure of that involves release of energy in the form of heat or light.
Lok Sabha and state legislative assemblies from 5 to 6 38. Which of the following is a chemical
years. The Lok Sabha has five year term but can be compound?
dissolved earlier either on the advice of the Prime (a) Air (b) Oxygen
Minister or if president feels that no government can be (c) Ammonia (d) Mercury
formed after the resignation or fall of a regime. Money Ans. (c) : Ammonia is an inorganic compound
bills can only be introduced in Lok Sabha not in Rajya composed of a single nitrogen atom covalently bonded
Sabha and with the prior recommendation of the to three hydrogen atoms. It is both manufactured and
President. Rajya Sabha is not subject to dissolution; as produced naturally from bacterial processes and the
nearly as possible one third of its members retire every breakdown of organic matter. Ammonia is used in many
second year. industrial processes and as a fertilizer and refrigerant.
EPFO 2002 85 YCT
39. Consider the following statements: Codes:
1. Bermuda situated in Western Atlantic (a) A B C D
Ocean is a United Kingdom Overseas 1 3 4 2
Territory (b) A B C D
2. 38th Parallel divided boundary between 4 2 1 3
North and South Vietnam before (c) A B C D
unification
1 2 4 3
3. Bahamas situated near Florida is one of the
states of USA (d) A B C D
Which of these statements is/are correct?
(a) 1 only (b) 2 and 3 Ans. (d) :
(c) 1 and 3 (d) 1 and 2 Person Designation
Ans. (a) : Bermuda, situated in western North Atlantic Dennis Tito First space tourist
Ocean is British overseas territory. It is an archipelago Colin Powell Secretary of state USA
of 7 main islands and about 170 additional islets and Jacques Chirac President of France
rocks. 38th parallel is popular name given to latitude 38° Donald H. Rumsfeld Defence secretary USA
N. It roughly demarcates the boundary between North Question is answered as per details of 2002.
Korea and South Korea. Bahamas is not the state of
43. Match List-I (Football World Cup/Year) with
USA but a self administered, independent country
List-II (Host Country) and select the correct
which forms part of the United Nations.
answer using the codes given below the lists:
40. Consider the following statements:
List-I List-II
1. Falkland Islands are situated in Pacific
(Football world (Host Country)
Ocean
cup/year)
2. Red Sea separates Sudan from Egypt
3. England, Norway, Denmark surround A. 1986 1. Italy
North Sea B. 1990 2. Mexico
Which of these statements is/are correct? C. 1994 3. France
(a) 2 only (b) 1 and 3 D. 1998 4. USA
(c) 2 and 3 (d) 3 only 5. Spain
Ans. (d) : The Falkland islands is an archipelago in the Codes:
South Atlantic Ocean. It is British overseas territory. (a) A B C D
Red sea does not separates Sudan from Egypt but it 5 3 2 1
separates the coasts of Egypt, Sudan and Eritrea to the
(b) A B C D
west from those of Saudi Arabia and Yemen to the east.
Countries surrounding North Sea are England, Norway, 2 1 4 3
Denmark, Netherlands, Germany, Belgium and Sweden. (c) A B C D
Thus only statement (c) is correct. 5 1 2 3
(d) A B C D
41. Which is the correct sequence of the given
American cities from West to East? 2 3 4 1
(a) Salt Lake City-Pittsburgh-San Francisco-Boston Ans. (b) :
(b) San Francisco-Salt Lake City-Pittsburgh-Boston Football World Host Country
(c) Salt Lake City-San Francisco-Boston-Pittsburgh Cup Year
(d) San Francisco-Pittsburgh-Salt Lake City-Boston 1986 Mexico
Ans. (b) : The correct sequence of cities from west to 1990 Italy
east in USA is San Francisco Salt Lake city, Pittsburgh- 1994 USA
Boston 1996 France
42. Match List-I with List-II and select the correct 44. Match List-I (Person) with List-II
answer using the codes given below the lists (Organization) and select the correct answer
List-I List-II using the codes given below the lists:
A. Dennis Tito 1. President of France List-I List-II
B. Colin 2. Defence Secretary, (Person) (Organization)
Powell USA A. Rajendra S. 1. CII
C. Jacques 3. Secretary of State, Pawar
Chirac USA B. Ashok Soota 2. TERI
D. Donald H. 4. First space tourist C. R.S. Lodha 3. NIIT
Rumsfeld D. R.K. Pachauri 4. FICCI
EPFO 2002 86 YCT
Codes: 47. A factory has three belt conveyors fitted in its
(a) A B C D loading station. Conveyors 'A' and 'B'
4 2 3 1 operating simultaneously lift all the goods in
the same time during which the goods can be
(b) A B C D lifted by the conveyor 'C' operating alone.
3 1 4 2 Conveyor 'B' lifts all the goods five hours faster
(c) A B C D than conveyor 'A' but four hours slower than
4 1 3 2 the conveyor 'C'. The durations of time
(d) A B C D required to lift all the goods, individually by
the conveyors 'A', 'B' and 'C' are
(a) 17, 12 8 hrs (b) 15, 10, 6 hrs
Ans. (b) : (c) 16, 11, 7 hrs (d) 14, 9, 5 hrs
Person Organization
Ans. (b) : Let the belt conveyers A, B, C separately lift
Rajendra S. Pawar NIIT all the goods in X, Y, Z hours respectively.
Ashok Soota CII 1 1 1
R.S. Lodha FICCI ∴ = +
Z X Y
R.K. Pachauri TERI
1 X+Y
*Answer are as per data of 2002. =
Z XY
45. Consider the following statements : XY = XZ + YZ ......(1)
1. The demand for commodities having a any Y – 5 = X ......(2)
large number of close substitutes is less Y+4=Z ......(3)
elastic than the commodities having a Substituting values of X and Z from (2) and (3) in (1)
smaller number of substitutes. Y (Y–5) = (Y–5) (Y+4) + Y (Y + 4)
2. Luxury items have a highly elastic demand Y2 – 5Y = Y2 + 4Y – 5Y – 20 + Y2 + 4Y
3. The commodities whose consumption Y2 – 5Y = 2Y2 + 3Y – 20
cannot easily be postponed have less elastic Y2 + 8Y – 20 = 0 → Y2 + 10Y – 2Y – 20 = 0
demand (Y+10) (Y–2) = 0 Y = –10, Y = 2 (not proper)
Which of these statements is/are correct? Y = 10 hours putting value in (2) and (3) we get
(a) 1 only (b) 2 and 3 X = 15 hours and Y = 6 hours
(c) 1 and 2 (d) 1, 2 and 3 48. According to a certain code
Ans. (b) : The elasticity of demand refers to the degree × means 'greater than'
to which demand responds to a change in an economic + means 'less than'
factor. Many factors are important in determining the ÷ means 'equal to'
demand elasticity such as the price level, the type of % means 'plus'
good or service, the availability of a substitute and If A × X, B ÷ Z, Y + C; then the relation
levels of consumer incomes. The demand for between ABC and XYZ is
commodities having large number of close substitutes (a) ABC + XYZ
are elastic as the price of commodity rises consumer (b) (ABC % XYZ) × (2XYZ)
shift purchases to close substitutes. Luxury items are (c) (2XYZ) × (ABC % XYZ)
highly elastic while essential items have less elastic (d) (ABC/3) + (XYZ/4)
demand.
Ans. (b) : Since, A > X, B = Z and C > Y
46. A town 'P' is located in a particular district. Hence value of ABC is always > XYZ
The town 'A' is west of 'P'. Town 'T' is east of
thus ABC% XYZ × 2XYZ means
'P'. Town 'K' is east of 'B' but west of 'T' and
ABC + XYZ > 2XYZ is true.
'A'. They are all in the same district. Which
town is the farthest west? 49. 'Raksha Kavach' is
(a) P (b) K (a) a new safety equipment designed for the
soldiers of Indian Army
(c) B (d) A
(b) an anti-collision device to prevent collision
Ans. (c) : between trains designed by the Konkan
Railway Corporation
(c) a new design for earthquake resistant
buildings
(d) a new device for the Indian airports for the
safe landing of aircrafts
Ans. (b) : Raksha Kavach is an anti collision device to
prevent collision between trains. It is designed by the
Thus town B is farthest west. Konkan Railway Corporation.
EPFO 2002 87 YCT
50. Consider the following statements in respect of 54. What is the maximum number of pieces 1 cm
Soccer World Cup in diameter and 20 cm long that can be cut out
1. Prior to FIFA-2002 Cup, Brazil had won of a cylindrical wooden block 20 cm in length
the World Cup four times and 3 cm in diameter?
2. 'Indomitable Lions' is the nickname for (a) 4 (b) 5
Cameroon team (c) 6 (d) 7
3. 'Azzurri' is the nickname for the Italian 3
Ans. (*) : R1 = = 1.5cm
team 2
4. Senegal, Slovenia and Ecuador 1
participating in FIFA-2002 are the only R2 = = 0.5cm
2
teams participating in the World Cup for h = 20cm
the first time
R 12 (1.5 )
2
Which of these statements are correct? πR12 h
No. of pieces that can be cut = = =
(a) 1, 2 and 3 (b) 2 and 3 πR 2 2 h R 2 2 0.52
(c) 1, 3 and 4 (d) 1, 2 and 4 =9
Ans. (a) : Prior to FIFA-2002 Cup, Brazil had won the 55. A group of boys decided to buy a few cassettes
World Cup four times. In 2002 Brazil won World Cup whose price was between Rs. 200/- and Rs.
Fifth time. Cameroon's national football team is also 250/- But at the time of purchase, two of the
known as Indomitable lions. Azzurri is the nickname for boys declined to contribute as a result of which
Italian Football team. Along with Senegal, Slovenia and the remaining boys had to pay Re. 1/- more
Ecuador China also made her World Cup debuts. than they had originally planned. What was the
51. Recently, Government disinvested stake in price of the cassettes if the boys contributed
equally and in whole number of rupees?
VSNL, IBP and IPCL to
(a) Rs. 220/- (b) Rs. 210/-
(a) Bharti Telesonic, Reliance and GAIL,
(c) Rs. 230/- (d) Rs. 240/-
respectively
(b) Tata Group of Industries, Indian Oil Ans. (a) : Let the number of boys in group be –× Equal
Corporation and Reliance, respectively no. amount given by each boy to purchase cassette = Rs
y
(c) Bharti Telesonic, Royal Dutch Shell and
Let x × y = 200 ......(1)
Pfizer, respectively
(d) Motorala, Kuwait Petroleum and Ranbaxy, or x × y = 250 .....(2)
respectively Now as per question
Ans. (b) : When question was asked Government (x–2) (y+1) = 200
disinvested in VSNL, IBP and IPCL to Tata Group of or (y–2) (y+1) = 250
Industries, Indian Oil Corporation and Reliance Solving (1) & (2) we get
respectively. xy = xy+x –2y –2
⇒ x–2y = 20
52. Stockholm Syndrome is a mental condition
experienced by ⇒ x = 2y + 1
(a) the young persons who take up jobs in the Q 250 > x × y > 200
industry after passing out from the Hence x × y = 22 × 10 = 200
Management Schools and (x–2) (y+1) = 20×11 = 220
(b) persons who migrate from rural areas to urban Thus based on inference 220 will be right answer.
cities, during the earlier stages of their stay 56. Match List-I (Prominent Football Player) with
(c) drug-addicts in the rehabilitation centres List-II (Country) and select the correct answer
(d) hostages and kidnap victims in which positive using the codes given below the lists:
feelings develop towards their captors List-I List-II
Ans. (d) : Stockholm Syndrome is an emotional (Football (Country)
response. It happens to some abuse and hostage victims world cup/year)
when they have positive feeling towards an abuser or A. Michael Owen 1. Italy
captor. B. Luis Figo 2. Spain
53. Latitude of a place is indicative of its C. Gabriel 3. Portugal
(a) time (b) altitude Batistuta
(c) amount of rainfall (d) temperature D. Raul Gonzalez 4. Argentina
Ans. (d) : Latitude of a place is indicative of its 5. England
temperature. Latitude is the measurement of distance
6. Brazil
north or south of the equator.
EPFO 2002 88 YCT
Codes: 58. The spinner's home town is
(a) A B C D (b) A B C D (a) Pune (b) Warangal
5 2 4 3 6 3 1 2 (c) Bangalore (d) Chandigarh
(c) A B C D (d) A B C D Ans. (b) : As per table spinners hometown is Warangal.
5 3 4 2 6 2 1 3
59. Chandigarh is home town of
Ans. (c) : The correct match is as follows:- (a) Philips (b) Wasim
Prominent football player Country (c) Bishan (d) Sumeet
Michael Owen England
Ans. (b) : As per table Chandigarh is hometown of
Luis figo Portugal
Wasin.
Gabriel Batistuta Argentina
Raul Gonzalez Spain 60. Who is the pace bowler?
(a) Bishan (b) Sumeet
57. Consider the following statements:
1. Alluvial soil is rich in chemical properties and (c) Wasim (d) Chetan
is capable of yielding Rabi and Kharif crops Ans. (a) : As per table Bishan is the pace bowler.
2. Black soil is suitable for cotton, groundnut 61. Who is the spinner?
3. Rabi crops are reaped in autumn after (a) Wasim (b) Bishan
sowing in June (c) Chetan (d) Philips
Which of these statements are correct? Ans. (d) : As per table Philips is the Spinner
(a) 1, 2 and 3 (b) 1 and 2
62. Chetan's home town is
(c) 2 and 3 (d) 1 and 3
(a) Bangalore (b) Warangal
Ans. (b) : Alluvial soil is rich in chemical properties
and is capable of yielding Rabi and Kharif crops. Black (c) Surat (d) Pune
soil also known as regur is suitable for cotton and Ans. (a) : As per table Chetan's hometown is
groundnut. The Rabi crops are sown around mid Bangalore.
November not in June after monsoon rains are over and 63. A and B stand in a circular ring with 10 other
is harvested in April. persons. If the arrangement of 12 persons is
Directions (for next five items): randomly done, the chance that there are
Sumeet, Philips, Wasim, Bishan and Chetan are five exactly 3 persons between A and B is
players of the College Cricket team and their home (a) 3/12 (b) 2/11
towns are Surat, Pune, Warangal, Bangalore and (c) 2/13 (d) 3/10
Chandigarh but not in that order. The five specialist slots
Ans. (b) : Total number of persons = 12
of spinner, pace bowler, wicket-keeper, batsman and the
captain are held by them, again not in the order of their 12 person can be seated around a circular table = (12–
names stated above. 1)! = 11! ways.
(i) Their names, home towns and the specialties do not Now 3 out 10 can be seated in 10C 3 ways.
start with the same letter Now consider the three persons and A & B as one
(ii) Neither Philips nor Wasim is the captain and they do person we have total 8 persons. Now 8 persons can be
not belong to either Surat or Bangalore seated in (8–1)! = 7! ways.
(iii) Sumeet is neither a wicket-keeper nor a batsman • 3 persons can be seated in 3! ways between A & B
(iv) Pune is not Bishan's home town
• A & B can also exchange their positions.
(v) The player who hails from Bangalore is a wicket-
keeper Hence total number of ways in which three persons can
(vi) The captain's home town is Pune while the batsman be seated between A & B = 10C 3 × 7! × 3! × 2!
does not hail from 10!
Solution- Table for question number 58-62 = × 7!× 3!× 2!
7!× 3!
Pers Spin pac wic bats capt sur wara bang cha pune
on bow er ket man ain at ngal alur ndig = 10! × 2
ler kee u arh 2 × 10! 2
per Thus required probability = =
Sum
11! 11
it 64. A and B ran over a distance starting from the
Phili same place. The distance-time graph is shown:
ps
Was
eem
Bish
an
Chet
an
EPFO 2002 89 YCT
Consider the following statements : 67. Consider the following statements:
1. A ran throughout the given period of time 1. Prime Meridian passes through Greenwich
with uniform velocity and is at 0º Longitude
2. A ran throughout the given period of time 2. International Date Line, on the map
with uniform acceleration appears as a straight line along 180º
3. B stopped running after 2 hours Longitude
4. A ran faster than B near the 2 hr. stage 3. While crossing International Date Line
Which of these statements is/are correct? from east to west, one gains a day
(a) 2 and 3 (b) 1, 3 and 4
1
(c) 4 only (d) 1, 2, 3 and 4 4. Tropic of Cancer lies at 23 % Latitude S.
Ans. (b) : In the given Graph- 2
• A ran throughout the given period of time with Which of these statements are correct?
uniform velocity as if distance time graph is straight (a) 1, 2, 3 and 4 (b) 1 and 2
line then it is uniform motion with no acceleration. (c) 1 and 3 (d) 2 and 3
• B stopped running after 2 hours. Ans. (b) :
• A ran faster than B near 2 hr. stage • Prime Meridian passes through Greenwich and is at
65. Match List-I (Classical Dance Form) with List- 0º longitude.
II (State) and select the correct answer using • International Dateline is considered as straight line.
the codes given below the lists: However it is not a straight line. It curves around
List-I List-II several land masses.
(Classical Dance Form) (State) • A traveller crossing the date line from east to west
A. Bharat Natyam 1. Orissa he/she loses a day and while crossing from west to
B. Kathakali 2. Tamil Nadu east he/she gains a day
C. Kuchipudi 3. Manipur 1
• Tropic of cancer lies at 23 º North latitude.
4. Andhra Pradesh 2
5. Kerala Best possible option is (b).
Codes: 68. 15 men can complete a work in 280 days. They
(a) A B C started the work and after every 10 days, 15
4 3 1 additional men were employed. In how many
(b) A B C days the work was completed?
2 5 4 (a) 70 days (b) 60 days
(c) A B C (c) 55 days (d) 50 days
4 5 1 Ans. (a) : 15 men can complete a work = 280 days.
(d) A B C Thus total men day = 15×280 = 4200
1 4 3 15 men in 10 days = 15×10 = 150 men day
Ans. (b) : The correct match is: 30 men in 10 days = 30×10 = 300 men day
Classical Dance form State
45 men in 10 days = 45×10 = 450 men day
Bharat Natyam Tamil Nadu
Kathakali Kerala 60 men in 10 day = 60×10 = 600 men day
Kuchipudi Andhra Pradesh 75 men in 10 day = 75×10 = 750 men day
66. Consider the following statements: 90 men in 10 day = 90×10 = 900 men day
While it is 6:30 AM (Sunday) in London, it is 105 men in 10 day = 105×10 = 1050 men day
around Total - 70 days and 4200 men day
1. 2:30 AM (Sunday) in Honolulu (Hawaii) 69. Bag 'A' contains 5 white and 2 black balls. Bag
2. 8:30 PM (Saturday) in Honolulu (Hawaii) 'B' contains 2 white and 3 black balls. If any
3. 3:30 PM (Sunday) in Tokyo one bag is chosen and a ball is taken out of it at
4. 1:30 AM (Sunday) in Tokyo random, what is the probability that the ball is
Which of these statements is/are correct? black?
(a) 4 only (b) 2 and 3 (a) 31/70 (b) 1/2
(c) 1 and 4 (d) 2 and 4 (c) 5/12 (d) 3/5
Ans. (b) : London is at prime meridian. Thus time of 1 2 3
location to east of London will be ahead of London's Ans. (a) : Required probability = +
and time of places at west of London will be behind the 2 7 5
time of London. 1 10 + 21
• Honolulu is at west of London and 8:30 PM =
(Saturday) is behind London's time of 6:30 AM. 2 35
• Similarly Tokyo is at east of London and 3:30 PM 31
=
(Sunday) is ahead of London's time. 70
EPFO 2002 90 YCT
70. Three containers have their volumes in the • The Central Government is the cadre controlling
ratio 3:4:5. They are full of mixtures of milk authority for three All India Services and not Union
and water. The mixtures contain milk and Public Service Commission.
water in the ratio of 4:1 3:1 and 5:2
respectively. The contents of all these three • Staff Selection Commission is entrusted with task of
containers are poured into a fourth container. making recruitment to all the Group B post (Grade
The ratio of milk and water in the fourth Pay Rs. 4600) and all Group C post.
container is However when question was asked commission was
(a) 5 : 2 (b) 157 : 53 entrusted to make recruitment to all Group B posts with
(c) 151 : 48 (d) 4 : 1 Grade Pay less than Rs. 4600.
Ans. (b) : Let the B containers are A, B and C and ratio 73. Match List-I (City) with List-II
A : B : C = 3 : 4 : 5 Let the mixture are 3x, 4x, 5x (Establishment) and select the correct answer
respectively the ratio of milk and water in containers A, using the codes given below the lists:
B and C is 4:1, 3:1, 5:2 respectively.
The ratio of milk and water in fourth container List-I List-II
4 3 5 (City) (Establishment)
3x × + 4x × + 5x × A. Arkonnam 1. Central Air
= 5 4 7
1 1 2 Command HQ
3x × + 4x × + 5x ×
5 4 7 B. Allahabad 2. Naval air base
314x 157 C. Kamptee 3. Institute of
= =
6106x 53 Military Law
Thus ratio of milk and water is 157:53 D. Mhow 4. Coast Guard
71. Two dice are thrown simultaneously. The District HQ
probability that the product of the two
numbers on the two dice is an even number is 5. College of
(a) 1/2 (b) 3/4 Combat
(c) 5/16 (d) 3/8 Codes:
Ans. (b) : Two dices thrown simultaneously (a) A B C D
n(S) = 6×6 = 36 2 5 3 1
n(E) = The product of two number on two dice is an (b) A B C D
even number 3 1 4 5
= (1×2) (1×4) (1×6) (2×1) (2×2) (2×3) (2×4) (2×5) (c) A B C D
(2×6)
2 1 3 5
(3×2) (3×4) (3×6) (4×1) (4×2) (4×3) (4×4) (4×5)
(4×6) (d) A B C D
(5×2) (5×4) (5×6) (6×1) (6×2) (6×3) (6×4) (6×5)
(6×6) Ans. (c) : The correct match is:
n(E) = 27 City Establishment
n(E) 27 3 Arkonnam Naval Airbase
So probability = = =
n(S) 36 4 Allahabad Central Air Command
72. Consider the following statements: Kanptee Institute of Military Law
1. For the three All-India Services, there are Mhow Mhow
24 State cadres including three joint cadres *Institute of Military Law later shifted to Delhi.
2. Union Public Service Commission is the 74. Match List-I (Library) with List-II (City) and
cadre controlling authority for Indian select the correct answer using the codes given
Administrative Service
below the lists:
3. Staff Selection Commission is entrusted
with the task of making recruitment to all List-I List-II
the Group 'B' and Group 'C' posts under (Library) (City)
the Government A. National 1. New Delhi
Which of these statements is/are correct? Library
(a) 1 only (b) 1 and 2
(c) 2 and 3 (d) 1, 2 and 3 B. State Central 2. Kolkata
Library
Ans. (a) : For three All India Services there is one cadre
for each Indian state that is 21 cadres and three joint C. Connemara 3. Mumbai
cadres making it total 24 cadres. Public Library 4. Chennai
EPFO 2002 91 YCT
Codes: 1 1 1
58 minutes = × =
(a) A B C 2 2 4
1 3 4 1 1 1
(b) A B C 57 minutes = × =
2 4 8
2 3 4 1 1 1
(c) A B C 56 minutes = × =
2 8 16
1 4 3
1 1 1
(d) A B C 55 minutes = × =
2 4 3 2 16 3
1
Ans. (b) : The correct match is: In 55 minutes basket would file .
Library City 32
National Library Kolkata 79. If X is mortal, Y is wise. If Z is not good, A will
State Central Library Mumbai suffer. Y is not wise, if A suffers. If B is a slave,
X is immortal. If A suffers, what follows?
Connemara Public Library Chennai
(a) X is mortal (b) B is a slave
75. Crop Yield Formulation Unit which has (c) Z is good (d) Y is wise
developed statistical models to forecast crop
Ans. (b) : B is a slave.
yield works under the control of
(a) Ministry of Water Resources 80. Consider the following statements regarding
the Nuclear Power Programme of India:
(b) Department of Agriculture and Co-operation
1. Pressurised heavy water reactors have
(c) India Meteorological Department
been set up at Kaiga (Karnataka) and
(d) Department of Food and Public Distribution Rawatbhata (Rajasthan)
Ans. (c) : Crop yield formulation unit works under 2. Variable Energy Cyclotron Centre,
control of Indian Metrological Department. Kolkata is one of the five Research
76. East Timor, the latest independent nation in Centres under the Department of Science
the world was ruled by and Technology
(a) Indonesia (b) Australia 3. India has a vast resource of Thorium and
(c) Malaysia (d) Philippines the third stage of Indian Nuclear Power
Programme envisages the use of Thorium
Ans. (a) : East Timor was internationally recognised as for power generation.
an independent nation in 2002. Earlier it was ruled by
Which of these statements is/are correct?
Indonesia.
(a) 2 only (b) 1 and 2
77. Which one of the following pairs is not (c) 1 and 3 (d) 1, 2 and 3
correctly matched?
Ans. (c) : • Pressurised heavy water reactors have been
(a) National Aluminium Company Ltd. :
set up at Kaiga (Karnataka) and Rawatbhata
Bhubaneswar
(Rajasthan).
(b) Indian Bureau of Mines : Dhanbad
• Variable Energy Cyclon Centre, Kolkata is one of the
(c) National Film Archives of India : Pune five research centers under Department of Atomic
(d) National Archives of India : New Delhi Energy.
Ans. (b) : The correct match is- • India has a vast resource of thorium at western coast
Organization/Institutions City and 3rd stage of Indian Nuclear Programm envisage use
National Aluminum - Bhubaneswar of Thorium for power generation.
Company Limited 81. Consider the following statements:
Indian Bureau of Mines - Nagpur According to Census 2001
1. The literacy rate increase for males is more
National Film Archives of - Pune
than that of the females during last one
India
decade
National Archives of India - New Delhi 2. Amongst the States and Union Territories,
78. The flowers in a basket become double every Delhi has the highest population density
minute and the basket gets full in one hour. In while Sikkim has the lowest
how much time, the basket was 1/32 full? 3. The correct sequence of population in
(a) 12 minutes (b) 32 minutes descending order of Rajasthan, Madhya
(c) 45 minutes (d) 55 minutes Pradesh, Tamil Nadu and Karnataka is :
Ans. (d) : Basket gets full in 60 minutes Tamil Nadu-Madhya Pradesh-Rajasthan-
Karnataka
∴ 60 minutes = 1 Basket fuls Which of these statements is/are correct?
1 1 (a) 1 and 2 (b) 2 and 3
59 minutes = 1× =
2 2 (c) 1, 2 and 3 (d) 3 only
EPFO 2002 92 YCT
Ans. (d) : • The correct sequence of population in 87. Which among the following became the first
descending order of given states is Tamil Nadu, woman Prime Minister in the world?
Madhya Pradesh, Rajasthan, Karnataka. (a) Indira Gandhi
• Delhi had highest population density while Arunachal (b) Kim Campbell
Pradesh had lowest. (c) Margaret Thatcher
82. 'Sagar Samrat' is the name of (d) Sirimavo Bandaranaike
(a) an island near Port Blair Ans. (d) : The first woman Prime Minister in the world
(b) a drilling ship in Bombay High was Sirimavo Bandarnaike. She was elected Prime
(c) an island near Maldives Minister of Sri Lanka three times.
(d) name of a 5-star hotel in Goa 88. Match List-I (Park/Sanctuary) with List-II
Ans. (b) : Sagar Samrat is a drilling Ship in Bombay (State) and select the correct answer using the
high. codes given below the lists:
83. Which tourist destination from amongst the List-I List-II
following will be developed as an international (Park/Sanctuary) (State)
destination for tourism according to the Budget A. Keoladeo 1. Assam
2002-03? National Park
(a) Port Blair (b) Hampi B. Corbett 2. Kerala
(c) Pushkar (d) Nalanda National Park
Ans. (c) : Pushkar was the tourist destination amongst C. Kazi Ranga 3. Uttar Pradesh
the following which was to be developed as Sanctuary
international destination for tourism according to budget D. Periyar Game 4. Rajasthan
2002-03. Sanctuary 5. Uttaranchal
84. Which positional value divides the series into
Codes:
equal parts?
(a) A B C D
(a) Median (b) Second quartile
2 5 4 1
(c) 5th Decile (d) All the above three
(b) A B C D
Ans. (a) : Median is positional value which divides 4 3 1 2
series into two equal parts.
(c) A B C D
85. Consider the following statements : 2 3 4 1
1. Launching of Fourth five-year plan was (d) A B C D
postponed and three annual plans had to
4 5 1 2
be resorted to between 1966 to 1969
2. Fifth five-year plan was terminated a year Ans. (d) : The correct match is-
earlier Park/Sanctuary - State
3. Eighth five-year plan commenced in 1992 Keoladeo National Park - Rajasthan
instead of 1990 Corbett National Park - Uttarakhand
Which of these statements are correct? (Uttaranchal)
(a) 2 and 3 (b) 1 and 2 Kazi Ranga Sanctuary - Assam
(c) 1 and 3 (d) 1, 2 and 3 Periyar Game Sanctuary - Kerala
Ans. (d) : Due to miserable failure of the third plan 89. Consider the following statements :
resulted from war, inflation, draught government was
forced to declare 'plan holidays' for 1966-67, 1967-68, 1. Part 'B' of the Budget speech of the
1968-69. Finance Minister includes
description of the initiatives on economic
The fifth five year plan was from 1974-78 (terminated front to be taken up by the Government
earlier) and 8th Five Year Plan commence in 1992 for the coming year in addition to direct
instead of 1990. and indirect tax proposals
86. Shri Rajender Singh won the Ramon 2. The receipts on account of the partial
Magsaysay Award for disinvestment of Central Government's
(a) Emergent leadership holdings in the equity capital of public
(b) Community leadership sector enterprises are revenue receipts
(c) Illiteracy eradication Which of these statements is/are correct?
(d) Bio-technology (a) 1 only (b) 2 only
Ans. (b) : Rajendra Singh is well known water (c) Both 1 and 2 (d) Neither 1 nor 2
conservationist from Rajasthan also known as Ans. (a) : Part B of the budget speech of finance
'Waterman of India'. He won the Ramon Magsaysay minister includes description of initiatives at economic
Award for community leadership in 2011 for his front to be taken UP by the government for the coming
pioneering work in community based efforts in water year in addition to direct and indirect tax proposals.
harvesting and water management. Receipts of disinvestment are considered capital receipts.
EPFO 2002 93 YCT
90. Carbohydrates are stored in the body as Which of these statements is/are correct?
(a) sugars (b) starch (a) 1 and 2 (b) 3 only
(c) Glucose (d) Glycogen (c) 2 and 3 (d) 1, 2 and 3
Ans. (d) : The carbohydrates are stored in body as Ans. (b) : The United Arab Emirates consists of seven
glycogen. When the body needs glucose enzymes break emirates which are Abu Dhabi, Ajman, Dubai, Fujairah,
the glycogen down to glucose. Ras Al Khaimah, Sharjah, Umm Al Quwain.
91. Consider the following statements : Oman is separate country.
1. Intel's Pentium IV is an operating system Abu Dhabi is capital of UAE got Dubai.
used in PCs The Fishing and tourism are key industries of UAE
2. During booting period of a PC, the apart from oil and gas industry.
operating system is first loaded 95. The Comptroller and Auditor General of India
3. Analogue computers are useful only in is appointed by the
scientific field while digital computers have (a) Prime Minister (b) President
application in scientific as well as in (c) Finance Minister (d) Home Minister
business, administrative functions Ans. (b) : Article 148 of the constitution provides that
4. Micro-computer is another name for the comptroller and Auditor General is appointed by
micro-processor President of India and can be removed from office only
Which of these statements are correct? in the manner and on the grounds that a judge of
(a) 1, 2, 3 and 4 (b) 2 and 3 Supreme Court is removed.
(c) 1 and 4 (d) 1, 2 and 4 96. The foreign traveller who visited India during
Ans. (b) : • Intel's Pentium IV is a single core CPUs for Vijaynagar period was
desktop & laptops. It is not the operating system. (a) Megasthenes (b) Yuan Chwang
• During booting period of a PC, the operating system is (c) Fa-hien (d) Nicolo Conti
first loaded. Ans. (d) : Among the options Nicolo Conti, the Italian
• Analogue computers are useful only in scientific field merchant, scholar and traveller visited Vijaynagar
while digital computers have application in scientific as during time of Dev Raya II.
well as business and administrative function. Other travellers who visited Vijaynagar are -
• Microprocessor is Central Processing Unit of • Ibn Batuta
Microcomputer not a microcomputer in itself. • Abdur Razzaq
92. Bacteria and viruses cause • Duarte Barbosa
(a) allergies • Dominingo Paes
(b) non-communicable diseases • Marco Polo
(c) degenerative diseases
Directions:
(d) infectious diseases
The following Eight (8) items consist of two statements,
Ans. (d) : Bacteria and viruses cause infectious diseases one labelled the 'Assertion (A)' and the other labelled the
Bacteria and viruses. Infectious diseases are illness 'Reason (R)'. You are to examine these two statements
caused by harmful organisms that get into body from carefully and decide if the Assertion (A) and the Reason
the outside. Pathogens that cause infectious diseases are (R) are individually true and if so, whether the Reason
viruses, bacteria, fungi etc. (R) is a correct explanation of the Assertion (A). Select
93. Substances which are obtained from micro your answers to these items using the Codes given below
organisms but used to destroy micro organisms and mark your answer-sheet accordingly :
are Codes:
(a) Antigens (b) Antibiotics (a) Both A and R are true and R is the correct
(c) Antibodies (d) Antiseptics explanation of A
Ans. (b) : An antibiotic is chemical substance produced (b) Both A and R are true but R is NOT the
by micro organisms. It has the capacity to inhibit the correct explanation of A
growth of and even to destroy bacteria and other micro (c) A is true but R is false
organisms. (d) A is false but R is true
94. Consider the following statements concerning 97. Assertion (A): Amongst the three strategies :
United Arab Emirates: overall cost leadership, differentiation and
1. Oman is one of the seven Emirates which market segmentation; a company with
form the United Arab Emirates differentiation strategy has less competition
2. Dubai is the capital of United Arab from both its direct competitors and from
Emirates potential substitutes
3. Fishing and tourism are the key industries Reason (R): Its consumers have greater brand
of United Aram Emirates loyalty, and therefore, less price sensitivity
EPFO 2002 94 YCT
Ans. (b) : Amongst the three strategies : overall cost 103. Assertion (A): Enterprise Resource Planning
leadership, differentiation and market segmentation; a (ERP) is useful in a manufacturing company. It
company with differentiation strategy has less does not find application in service industry.
competition from both its direct competitors and from Reason (R): Enterprise Resource Planning
potential substitutes and its consumers have greater (ERP) enables a high level of interaction and
brand loyalty, and therefore, less price sensitivity. coordination along
98. Assertion (A): In the organizational structure Ans. (d) : Enterprise Resource Planning (ERP) enables
of the modern companies, the trend is towards a high level of interaction and coordination along and
wider span of control. Enterprise Resource Planning (ERP) is useful in a
Reason (R): Narrow span of control manufacturing company as well as service industry.
discourages autonomy. 104. Assertion (A): Macro-economics deals with the
study of aggregates and averages.
Ans. (a) : In the organizational structure of the modern
companies for effective working, the trend is towards Reason (R): Central problem of macro-
wider span of control as narrow span of control economics is the determination of income and
employment.
discourages autonomy.
Ans. (d) : Macro-economics deals with the indicators
99. Assertion (A): Unity of command cannot
such as inflation, GDP ect. Central problem of macro-
always be strictly applied in practice economics is the determination of income and
Reason (R): Workers should report to different employment.
supervisors for different aspects or tasks Thus assertion is incorrect and reason is correct.
technical, financial, administrative etc.
105. Who among the following was a great
Ans. (a) : Unity of command cannot always be strictly protagonist of the 'Doctrine of Lapse'?
applied in practice because workers report to different (a) Lord Dalhousie
supervisors for different aspects or tasks technical,
(b) Lord Minto
financial, administrative etc.
(c) Lord Curzon
100. Assertion (A): Point of order is raised to (d) Lord Wellesley
criticize a policy of the government.
Ans. (a) : The great protagonist of the 'Doctrine of
Reason (R): It is an important tool of legislative Lapse was Lord Dalhousie'. The Doctrine of Lapse was
control. an annexation policy followed by Dalhousie when he
Ans. (a) : Point of order is raised to criticize a policy of was Governor-General from 1848 to 1856.
the government because it is an important tool of 106. Chauri Chaura is known in the history of
legislative control. India's struggle for freedom because
101. Assertion (A): A bus and a car (with lower (a) Gandhiji launched his first Satyagraha in
weight than that of the bus) moving at the same India from this place
velocity, are brought to rest on a level road by (b) Gandhiji withdrew his Satyagraha movement
applying brakes which exert same retarding when an irate mob set fire to a police station
force. The car will travel lesser distance before and burnt some policeman
coming to rest. (c) Hundreds of freedom fighters were shot dead
Reason (R): The kinetic energy to be destroyed at this place by the police
is equal to the work done by the retarding (d) Gandhiji sat on a hunger strike
force. Ans. (b) : Gandhiji withdrew Non-Cooperation
Ans. (a) : A bus and a car (with lower weight than that movement in February 1922. When a mob set fire to a
of the bus) moving at the same velocity, are brought to police station in Chauri-Chaura and some policemen
rest on a level road by applying brakes which exert were burnt.
same retarding force. The car will travel lesser distance Non Cooperation movement was started in 1920 with
before coming to rest. The kinetic energy to be aim of Poorna Swarajya.
destroyed is equal to the work done by the retarding 107. Who of the following is the Chairman of
force. Planning Commission in India?
102. Assertion (A): A train has come out of the (a) Finance Minister of India
platform and is accelerating. If a person sitting (b) Prime Minister of India
in the train and facing engine, throws up a (c) President of India
coin, it will fall ahead of him. (d) Home Minister of India
Reason (R): A force acts on the coin whose Ans. (b) : When Planning Commission was into
magnitude is equal to the product of the mass existence Prime Minister used to be ex-officio chairman
of the coin and acceleration of the train. of planning commission. On 1st January, 2015 planning
Ans. (d) : Assertion is correct and Reason is incorrect. commission was replaced by NITI Ayog.
EPFO 2002 95 YCT
108. The 'Grand Trunk Road' connects 111. Who among the following wrote the book
(a) Kolkata and Mumbai Algebra of Infinite Justice?
(b) Delhi and Chennai (a) Anita Desai (b) Vikram Seth
(c) Kolkata and Amritsar (c) Arundhati Roy (d) Rohington Mistry
(d) Tirupati and Ludhiana Ans. (c) : The "Algebra of Infinite Justice" is a
collection of essays written by Booker Prize Winner
Ans. (c) : The Grand Trunk road connects Kolkata and Arundhati Roy. The book discusses a wide range of
Amritsar. It was initiated by Sher Shah Suri. British issues including political euphoria in India over its
named it as Grand Trunk road. Originally the road ran successful nuclear bomb tests, the effect of public
from Sonargaon to Multan. works projects on the environment, war on terror etc.
109. The Civil Disobedience Movement of 1930 112. Who among the following became the President
culminated in the signing of a pact in 1931 by of India without having been the Vice-President?
Gandhiji and (a) Shri V.V. Giri
(a) Lord Irwin (b) Lord Linlithgow (b) Shri Venkataraman
(c) Lord Wavell (d) Lord Curzon (c) Shri N. Sanjeeva Reddy
Ans. (a) : The Civil Disobedience Movement of 1930 (d) Shri Zaki Hussain
Culminated in signing of Gandhi Irwin Pact. Lord Irwin Ans. (c) : Shri Neelam Sanjeeva Reddy became the
was the then Viceroy of India. president of India without having been Vice-President.
Other Presidents in the list are :-
The Pact resulted into Indian National Congress stop the
• Dr. Rajendra Prasad
Civil Disobedience Movement and also Congress
agreed to take pact in Round Table conference held by • Fakhruddin Ali Ahmad
British government for constitution reforms. • Gyani Jail Singh
• A.P.J. Abdul Kalam
110. Match List-I (Multi-purpose river valley projects)
with List-II (State) and select the correct answer • Pratibha Patil
using the codes given below the lists: • Pranav Mukharjee
• Ramnath Kovind
List-I List-II
• Draupadi Murmu
(Multi-purpose river (State)
valley projects) 113. In a group of 36 persons, a total of 16 take tea
while 9 take tea but not coffee. How many
A. Purna Project 1. Gujarat persons in this group take coffee but not tea?
B. Bhima Project 2. Maharashtra (a) 27 (b) 20
C. Kakrapara 3. Punjab (c) 25 (d) 11
Project Ans. (b) : Total number of persons = 36
D. Tehri Dam 4. Uttaranchal 16 persons take tea, while 9 take tea but not coffee.
Project 5. Uttar Pradesh So, (36–16) = 20 persons in this group take coffee but
not tea.
6. Karnataka
114.
Codes:
(a) A B C D
1 6 5 3
(b) A B C D
2 3 1 4
(c) A B C D How many lines other than those shown in the
1 3 5 4 figure are required to join each corner with
(d) A B C D another?
2 6 1 3 (a) 56 (b) 48 (c) 20 (d) 32
Ans. (c) : Total 20 lines other than those shown in the
Ans. (*) : The correct match is -
figure are required to join each corner with one another.
Multipurpose River - State
Valley Project
Purna Project - Maharashtra
Bhima Project - Karnataka
Kakraparna project - Gujarat
Tehri Dam Project - Uttaranchal
(Uttarakhand)
EPFO 2002 96 YCT
115. Match List-I (City) with List-II (River passing Pipe B fills completely in – 20 minutes
through the city) and select the correct answer 8 8 32
Pipe B fill tank in = 20 × =
using the codes given below 15 15 3
List-I List-II 32 44 44
Total time = 4 + = minute = × 60
(City) (River passing 3 3 3
through the city) = 880 second = 14 minute 40 second.
A. Nasik 1. Krishna Directions (For next Two items):
B. Surat 2. Cauvery A cube has six faces, each of a different colour.
C. Ujjain 3. Godawari The red face is opposite to black. The green
D. Vijayawada 4. Shipra face is between red and black. The blue face is
adjacent to white. The brown face is adjacent
5. Tapti
to blue. The red face is the bottommost face.
Codes: Sol- For question (117-118)
(a) A B C D
3 5 4 1
(b) A B C D
4 1 3 2
(c) A B C D 117. The four colours adjacent to green are
3 1 4 2 (a) red, black, blue and white
(d) A B C D (b) red, black, brown and blue
4 5 3 1 (c) red, black, brown and white
Ans. (a) : The correct match is as follows- (d) red, brown, blue and white
City River Passing through the cities Ans. (c) :
Nasik - Godawari 118. The face opposite to the brown face is
Surat - Tapti (a) red (b) white
Ujjain - Shipra (c) green (d) blue
Vijaywada - Krishna Ans. (b) :
116. Two pipes 'A' and 'B' can fill a tank in 15 119. Dhanvantari was
minutes and 20 minutes respectively. Both the (a) a famous general of Chandragupta Maurya
pipes are opened together but after 4 minutes, (b) a noted physician in the court of
pipe 'A' is turned off. What is the total time Chandragupta Vikramaditya
required to fill the tank? (c) a famous dramatist who lived during the time
(a) 12 mt 30 sec (b) 14 mt 40 sec of Harsha
(c) 10 mt 20 sec (d) 11 mt 45 sec (d) a musician in the Court of Ashoka
Ans. (b) : Pipe A fill tank completely in –15 minute Ans. (b) : Dhanvantari was a great physician in the
1 court of Chandragupta Vikramditya. He was one of the
A fill tank in 1 minute = nine jewels of court.
15
Pipe B fills tank completely in – 20 minute 120. Which leader is called the 'father' of India's
social reform movement?
1
B fill tank in 1 mine = . (a) Mahatma Gandhi
20
(b) Raja Rammohan Roy
1 1
Both A & B combined work in 1 minute = + (c) G.K. Gokhale
15 20
(d) Lokmanya Tilak
4+3 7
= = Ans. (b) : Raja Rammohan Roy is called the father of
60 60
India's Social reform movement. He inaugurated the age
7 7
A & B combined work in 4 minute = 4 × = of enlightenment and liberal reformist modernisation in
60 15 India. He was greatly influenced by western modern
7 8 thought and stressed on rationalism and modern
Remaining tank = 1 – =
15 15 scientific approach.
EPFO 2002 97 YCT
PRACTICE SET - 1
1. Identify the segment in the sentence which 10. Select the most appropriate meaning of the
contains a grammatical error. given idiom.
I am suitably dressed for the occasion, am I? At daggers drawn
(a) for the occasion (b) am I (a) deceiving somebody
(c) I am (d) suitably dressed (b) bitterly hostile
2. Identify the segment in the sentence which (c) friendly with each other
contains a grammatical error. If there is no (d) without hope
error, then select the option 'No error'. 11. Select the most appropriate meaning of the
underlined idiom in the given sentence.
All of us were a little nervous when we came Any jumped the gun and announced their
into this room today. plans at the dinner table.
(a) a little nervous when (a) ate quickly (b) started shooting
(b) when we came into this room today. (c) acted hastily (d) shouted loudly
(c) all of us were 12. Identify the segment in the sentence which
(d) No error contains a grammatical error.
3. Select the most appropriate option to fill in the Although this is a narrowest street, many large
blank : trucks can enter it.
(a) many large trucks
The children's Series .......... recommended for
(b) can enter it
young readers.
(c) Although this is
(a) have (b) is (d) a narrowest street
(c) are (d) has 13. In the given sentence, identify the segment
4. Select the most appropriate option to fill in the which contains a grammatical error.
blank. I think Virat Kohli will remain the captain of
In the United States of America two dozen the Indian team in a year 2020.
people ______ due to the present cold wave. (a) of the Indian team
(a) have been killed (b) are being killed (b) in a year 2020
(c) has killed (d) has been killed (c) will remain
5. Select the most appropriate synonym of the (d) the captain
given word. 14. Select the most appropriate option to fill in the
blank.
AUSPICIOUS The ......... chair was discarded by the office
(a) suspicious (b) playful management.
(c) favourable (d) hapless (a) broken (b) broking
6. Select the most appropriate synonym of the (c) break (d) broke
given word. 15. Select the most appropriate option to fill in the
Keen blank.
(a) Dull (b) Blunt She got a lucrative job of a translator because
she was –––––– in French.
(c) Eager (d) Adept
(a) deficient (b) proficient
7. Select the most appropriate ANTONYM of the (c) sufficient (d) efficient
given word. 16. Select the most appropriate synonym of the
ADMONISH given word.
(a) warn (b) scold Forbid
(c) chide (d) applaud (a) Close (b) Prohibit
8. Select the most appropriate antonym of the (c) Adieu (d) Encourage
given word. 17. Select the most appropriate synonym of the
LOYALTY given word.
(a) faith (b) treason PERPLEX
(a) deceive (b) bewilder
(c) trust (d) fidelity
(c) complex (d) surprise
9. Select the most appropriate one word 18. Select the most appropriate ANTONYM of the
substitution for the given group of words. given word.
Praise given for achievement FUTILE
(a) Kudos (b) Acute (a) hollow (b) worthless
(c) Anxiety (d) Rare (c) barren (d) productive
Practice Set-1 98 YCT
19. Select the most appropriate antonym of the 27. What was the outcome of the Gandhi-Irwin
given word. Pact of 1931?
PROLONG (a) Indian provincial elections were announced.
(a) prevent (b) allow (b) Indian National Congress agreed on a
(c) increase (d) shorten peaceful partition of Bengal.
20. Select the most appropriate word for the given (c) Bhagat Singh, Rajguru and Sukhdev were be
group of words. given a fair trial.
A group of birds of one kind (d) Indian National Congress agreed to end the
(a) Crowd (b) Bevy Civil Disobedience Movement.
(c) Band (d) Flock 28. The Sepoy Mutiny in India started from ___.
21. ………..comprises the archaeological remains of (a) Rajkot (b) Champaran
a monastic and scholastic institution. (c) Bareilly (d) Meerut
(a) Nalanda 29. Gandhiji's Satyagraha meant an attachment to
(b) Rani ki vav the following two elements
(c) Hill Forts of Rajasthan (a) Knowledge and religion
(d) Fatehpur Sikri (b) Truth and non-violence
22. In 19th century, the Satnami movement in
(c) Truth and chastity
central India was founded by______.
(d) Love of motherland and hate colonial masters
(a) Narayan Guru (b) Keshab Chandra Sen
(c) Guru Ghasi Das (d) Haridas Thakur 30. Which of the following statements is correct?
23. After the Revolt of 1857, which of the following (a) In 1774, the Asiatic Society was founded by
changes was not made in India by the British Sir Williams Jones
Government ? (b) In 1775, the Siraj ud-Daullah was defeated in
(a) Secretary of state for India was appointed the Battle of Plassey
(b) Proportion of Indian Soldiers in the British (c) In 1776, the first railway service began from
army were increased. Bombay to Thane
(c) Power of the East India Company was handed (d) In 1793, the Cornwallis code was enacted
over to the British Crown. 31. Who among the following laid the foundations
(d) Governer-General of India became Viceroy of the Indian National Movement by founding
of India the Indian Association at Calcutta in 1876?
24. Who led the Salt Satyagraha protest in Tamil (a) Womesh Chandra Banerjee
Nadu? (b) Dadabhai Naoroji
(a) Bhartidasan (c) Surendranath Banerjee
(b) Subramania Bharathi (d) Aurobindo Ghose
(c) Sreenivasa Shastry 32. Article 21 of the Indian Constitution ''protection
(d) C. Rajagopalachari of life and personal liberty'' deals with?
25. Gandhi expressed the hope that by combining (a) The Union Government
non-cooperation with__. India's two main (b) The Fundamental Rights of the Indian Citizen
religious communities. Hindu and Muslim
(c) The State Government
could collectively bring an end to colonial rule.
(a) Sepoy Muting (d) The Directive Principles of State Policy
(b) Khilafat Movement 33. Which article of Indian constitution guarantees
(c) Civil-disobedience Movement the protection of life and personal freedom ?
(d) Swadeshi Movement. (a) Article 21A (b) Article 20
26. With reference to India's freedom struggle (c) Article 21 (d) Article 22
consider the following statements. 34. Article 43A of the Indian Constitution
1. Gandhiji's first major public appearance was at "Participation of workers in management of
the opening of the Banaras Hindu University Industries" deals with?
(BHU) in February 1916. (a) The State Government
2. During the Great World War of 1914-18, the (b) The Union Government
French had instituted censorship of the press (c) The Directive Principles of State Policy
and permitted detention without trial. (d) The Fundamental Rights of the Indian Citizen
3. Jallianwala Bagh massacre took place in 35. On whose advice does the President of India
Amritsar in April 1919. appoint a state Governor?
Which of the statements given above is/are (a) Chief Justice of India
correct? (b) Chief Minister of the State
(a) 1 and 2 only (b) 2 and 3 only (c) Prime Minister of India
(c) 3 only (d) 1 and 3 only (d) Vice President of India
Practice Set-1 99 YCT
36. All of the following are power of the Rajya 45. According to the Demographic Transition
Sabha, except one. Select the wrong option : Theory, the third stage in a demographic cycle
(a) Can give the Union Parliament power to make is marked by :
laws on matters included in the State list (a) high fertility low mortality
(b) Approves the proclamation of emergency (b) low fertility low mortality
(c) Considers and approves non money bills and (c) high fertility high mortality
suggests amendments to money bills (d) high mortality low fertility
(d) Exercises control over executive by asking 46. In economic terms what do we mean by
questions, introducing motions and 'intermediate goods'?
resolutions (a) Price of goods without GST
37. Which article of the Constitution of India (b) Goods in transit before reaching the consumers
provides that each Indian state will have a (c) Goods sold between industries for the resale
Governor? or production of other goods
(a) Article 153 (b) Article 151 (d) Fixed assets used manufacturers
(c) Article 152 (d) Article 154 47. Which among the following constitute money
38. Independence of Judiciary means all of the in the modern economy?
following, except ____. (a) Only currency - paper notes and coins
(a) Executive must not restrain the functioning (b) Only demand deposits
of the judiciary (c) Both currency - paper notes and coins and
(b) Legislature should not interfere with the demand deposits
decision of the judiciary. (d) None of these
(c) Absence of accountability 48. The Swarna Jayanti Shahari Rojgar Yojana
(d) Judges must be able to perform their (SJSRY) mainly aims at creating employment
functions without fear opportunities for
39. Panchayat Samiti at the block level in India is (a) both self employment and wage employment
a/an…………. in urban areas
(a) Advisory Body (b) self employment in urban areas only
(b) Coordinating Authority only (c) wage employment in urban areas only
(c) Supervisory Authority only (d) None of these
(d) Administrative Authority 49. Scientists from which of the following
40. During an emergency all of the following institutions have launched a platform named
Fundamental Rights are suspended, except __. 'Al4Bharat' to promote innovation in Artificial
(a) freedom of association Intelligence in India?
(b) freedom of speech and expression (a) National Physical Laboratory, New Delhi
(c) personal liberty (b) Indian Institute of Science, Bengaluru
(d) freedom of assembly without arms (c) Tata Institute of Fundamental Research,
41. The 100th amendment in Indian Constitution Mumbai
provides ................ (d) Indian Institute of Technology, Madras
(a) Protection of livelihood and regulation of 50. Economics assumes that
street vending (a) people have unlimited desires but limited resources
(b) Acquiring of territories by India and transfer (b) people have limited desires but unlimited resources
of certain territories to Bangladesh (c) allocation of resources if not centrally planned
(c) Emoluments, Allowances and Privileges to will cause inefficiency
the Governors (d) people are emotional and make irrational decisions
(d) Reorganisation of state of Andhra Pradesh 51. Which among the following regarding GST is
42. The total population per net cultivable area of correct ?
a country refers to its --------. (a) The 100th Amendment introduced GST in the
(a) population density (b) agricultural density country
(c) physiological density (d) livestock density (b) Centre holds 100 percent stake in GST
43. Which one of the following bio reserves of network
India is not included in the World Network of (c) GST network was formed under Companies
Biosphere Reserves? Act
(a) Sunderbans (b) Gulf of Mannar (d) GST council is a statutory body
(c) Nandadevi (d) Corbett 52. Unemployment resulting from industrial
44. Ozone layer is formed by the reaction of – reorganization, typically due to technological
(a) Oxygen and ultraviolet of the atmosphere change, rather than fluctuations in supply or
(b) Carbon dioxide and layers of the atmosphere demand is called
(c) Space rays and layers of the atmosphere (a) Structural unemployment
(d) Infrared rays and ultraviolet rays (b) Frictional unemployment
Practice Set-1 100 YCT
(c) Seasonal unemployment 62. Which cells in our body are popularly called
(d) Cyclical unemployment ''soldiers of the human body''?
53. In which of the following years PM-KISHAN (a) Eosinophils (b) White blood cells
(Pradhan Mantri Kisan Samman Nidhi) was (c) Red blood cells (d) Basophils
formally launched? 63. Which of the following statements about blood
(a) 2015 (b) 2019 pressure is correct?
(c) 2014 (d) 2017 (a) The normal systolic pressure is about 80 mm
54. A man standing close to the platform at a of Hg and diastolic pressure is 120 mm of Hg
railway station experiences a pulling force (b) The normal systolic pressure is about 72 mm
towards a fast moving train because of ------ of Hg and diastolic pressure is 35 mm of Hg
(a) gravitation forces between train and man (c) The normal systolic pressure is about 160 mm
(b) illusion of the man of Hg and diastolic pressure is 80 mm of Hg
(d) The normal systolic pressure is about 120 mm
(c) the centripetal forces
of Hg and diastolic pressure is 80 mm of Hg
(d) pressure difference due to fast moving air in
64. Both, haemoglobin and myoglobin require ____
between for formation.
55. Which of the following statements are (a) Vitamin B12 (b) Vitamin A
CORRECT? (c) Iron (d) Calcium
I. Change in magnetic field produces induced 65. Which of the following parts of the human
current. body extracts the carbon dioxide, brought by
II. Flow of current in a conductor produces the blood, from the rest part of the body?
magnetic field. (a) Trachea (b) Larynx
III. Magnetic field related to coil can be (c) Bronchi (d) Alveoli
produced by motion between conductor 66. What is the function of an important part of
and coil. the human eye, the iris?
(a) Only I and II (a) Control pupil size
(b) Only I and III (b) Image building
(c) Only II and III (c) Eye lens protection
(d) All statements are correct. (d) Straighten the inverted image on the retina
56. As per Newton’s law of gravitation, the force 67. DPT vaccine is categorized as which of the
between two bodies is………. following?
(a) directly proportional to the product of their (a) Anti viral vaccine
masses (b) Anti protozoan vaccine
(b) directly proportional to the distance between (c) Anti rickettsial vaccine
them (d) A combined vaccine
(c) directly proportional to the product of their redius 68. Which of the following is an important
(d) directly proportional to the product of forces determinant of population change?
57. For what is Rediocarbon dating technique used? (a) Human development report
(a) To estimate soil contamination (b) Migration
(b) To estimate the amount of water in fossils (c) Life expectancy
(c) To estimate the age of fossils (d) Net attendance ratio
(d) To estimate the quality of soil 69. Dial-up networking is :
58. What must be the condition for rusting in iron? (a) a connection method
(a) Absence of O2 (b) Presence of CO2 (b) a multiplication technique
(c) Absence of H2O (d) Presence of O2 (c) a modulation technique
59. Which tissue has heavily thickened lignified (d) a demodulation technique
walls? 70. In the context of a word document, the word
'gutter' is used for?
(a) Collenchyma (b) Parenchyma
(a) Left space for rough work at left side
(c) Aerenchyma (d) Sclerenchyma
(b) Empty page inserted between two filled pages
60. What is the distinctive characteristic of
(c) Space between two paragraphs
'marsupials'?
(d) Remaining space on one side for sewing and
(a) They carry young ones in pouches binding
(b) They hibernate in winter 71. ..............is a type of computing that performs
(c) They lay eggs computation, storage and even applications as
(d) They migrate from one place to another a service across a network.
61. Which enzyme is present in the pancreatic (a) Cloud Computing
juice responsible for protein digestion? (b) Distributed Computing
(a) Trypsin (b) Pepsin (c) Parallel Computing
(c) Amylase (d) Lipase (d) Virtual Computing
Practice Set-1 101 YCT
72. BIOS is a……….. 82. Assertion (A) : Social responsibility of
I. non-volatile firmware business is an idea that
II. Volatile firmware cannot be put into practice by
III. Software stored on a small memory chip on most of the business
motherboard Reason (R) : There are no norms to
(a) Only I (b) Only II measure the extent of
(c) Only I and III (d) Only II and III responsibility towards each
73. In the context of cloud computing, what is the segment of the society.
English full form of 'PaaS'? Examine there two statements carefully and
(a) Payment as a Service select the answers to these items using the
(b) Platform as a Service codes given below :
(c) Protocol as a Service Cods :
(d) Performance as a Service (a) Both (A) and (R) are individually true and
74. The discarded file in the recycle bin gets (R) is the correct explanation of (A).
removed permanently when ________. (b) Both (A) and (R) are individually true, but
(a) The computer is shut down (R) is not the correct explanation of (A).
(b) It is emptied manually (c) (A) is true, but (R) is false
(c) The user is switched (d) (A) is false, but (R) is true
(d) Date changes 83. Where more than one fire-insurance policy is
75. Which of the following countries will launch taken to cover the same risk, it is called:
the first ever wood-based satellite by 2023 to (a) Block Insurance
reduce space debris? (b) Re-Insurance
(a) Russia (b) The USA (c) Double Insurance
(c) Japan (d) England (d) Average Policy
76. If the goodwill A/c is raised at the time of 84. An insurer is one who has :
retirement of a partner and is to be written off, (a) Insured his goods or life
then the capital accounts of the remaining (b) filed a suit in a law court to recover an
partners are debited in insurance claim
(a) new profit sharing ratio (c) Undertaken to make goods the loss of the
(b) capital ratio subject-matter of insurance
(c) old profit sharing ratio (d) Helped a person to get an insurance policy
(d) sacrificing ratio 85. Horizontal analysis is
77. If a person starts business with Rs. 50,000 cash, (a) Dynamic analysis (b) Average analysis
goods worth Rs. 50,000 and fixed assets worth
Rs. 1,00,000 then his capital would be (c) Trend analysis (d) Static analysis
(a) Rs. 2,00,000 (b) Rs. 1,50,000 86. Turnover Ratios help the management in
(c) Rs. 1,00,000 (d) Rs. 50,000 (a) Managing the resources
78. The raw material should be valued at: (b) Evaluating the performance
(a) Market price (c) Planning the finance
(b) Realised value (d) All the above
(c) Cost 87. Stock turnover is:
(d) Cost or market price, whichever is lower (a) Profitability ratio (b) activity ratio
79. Henri Fayol did not lay down the following (c) Leverage ratio (d) liquidity ratio
principles. 88. Goodwill is shown on
(a) Principle of order (a) Assets side of balance sheet
(b) Principle of Espirit-de-Corps (b) liability side of balance sheet
(c) Principle of Exception (c) Debit side of profit & loss A/C
(d) Principle of Scalar chain of command (d) Debit side of Trading A/C
80. ''A manager should control and direct a 89. Match list I with list II and select the correct
limited number of persons'' is a principle of answer using the codes given below the lists :
(a) Unity of Command List I list II
(b) Unity of Direction A. AS-1 1. Valuation of
(c) Span of Management Inventory
(d) Scalar Chain B. AS-2 2. Cash flow
81. Direct confirmation procedure can be applied to: statement
(a) Debtors only C. AS-3 3. Revenue
(b) Creditors only Recognition
(c) Debtors and creditors both D. AS-9 4. Disclosure
(d) None of the above Accounting Policy
Practice Set-1 102 YCT
Code Reason (R): Conciliation officer only
A B C D investigates the Industrial disputes
(a) 4 1 2 3 which exists or apprehended.
(b) 4 1 3 2 Codes:
(c) 1 4 3 2 (a) Both (A) and (R) are wrong
(d) 1 4 2 3 (b) Both (A) and (R) are correct
90. Accounts do not record (c) (A) is correct and (R) is wrong
(a) Profit and loss (d) (A) is wrong and (R) is correct
(b) Liability 100. Which of the following is not an objective of
minimum wages Act 1946-
(c) Number of Employee
(a) Fixing minimum retes of the wages
(d) Asset
(b) Revise the minimum wages and enforce
91. The Factories Act 1948 imposes the following Payment of minimum wages.
obligations upon the employer in regard to his
(c) (a) and (b) boths
workers:
(d) regulate the minimum wages of apprentice
(a) Health (b) Safety
101. 225 + 226 + 227 is divisible by:
(c) Welfare (d) All of above
(a) 5 (b) 7
92. Worker's oppose rationalisation because :
(c) 9 (d) 6
(a) of dominance of capital
102. Which of the following statement(s) is/are
(b) of lockout TRUE ?
(c) of retrenchment
2 3 5
(d) they will have to work more I. < <
93. Contingent liability is shown due to accounting 3 5 2 5 4 3
concept of 3 2 7
II. < <
(a) full discloserness (b) conservatism 2 5 3 3 4 5
(c) materiality (d) dual aspect (a) Only I (b) Only II
94. Patent rights account is : (c) Both I and II (d) Neither I nor II
(a) Personal A/C (b) Real A/C 103. The average of eleven numbers is 68. The
(c) Nominal A/C (d) All of the above average of the first four numbers is 78 and that
95. A depentune holder gets: of the next four numbers is 63. The 9th number
(a) Divident is two times the 11th number and the 10th
(b) Profit number is 4 less than the 11th number. What is
(c) Ownership of company the average of the 9th and 11th numbers?
(d) Interest at fixed rate (a) 72.6 (b) 70.1
(c) 72.2 (d) 70.5
96. Which of the following statements are true?
104. The ratio of the income of A to that of B is 5 : 7.
1.All employees are workmen A and B save ` 4,000 and ` 5,000 respectively.
2.All employees are not workmen 2
If the expenditure of A is equal to 66 % of
3.All workmen are employees 3
4.All managerial staff are workmen the expenditure of B, then the total income of A
and B is :
Code:
(a) ` 26,400 (b) ` 28,800
(a) 1 and 2 (b) 2 and 3 (c) ` 24,000 (d) ` 25,200
(c) 3 and 4 (d) 1 and 3 105. A person's salary was decreased by 50% and
97. India a --------------member of ILO subsequently increased by 50%. By what much
(a) Founding (b) Only per cent does his salary increase or decrease?
(c) Sale (d) Banned (a) Decreased 18% (b) Increase 15%
98. Who among the following moved a resolution (c) Increase 20% (d) Decrease 25%
in the Central Legislative Assembly introduce a 106. Aditya sells two wrist watches from his
legislation for registration and protection of personal collection for `12,600 each. On the
Trade Union in the year 1921? first watch, he gains 26% and on the second, he
(a) B.P. Wedia (b) M.N. Joshi loses 10%. Find the overall gain or loss
(c) N.m. Lokhanddey (d) V.V. Giri percentage.
99. Read the Assertion (A) and Reason (R). Write (a) Gain of 16% (b) Gain of 5%
the correct answer using the codes given below: (c) Loss of 5% (d) Gain of 12%
Assertion (A): The conciliation officer has no 107. A man starts from his house and travelling at
power under the Industrial 30 km/h, he reaches his office late by 10
Disputes Act when neither minutes, and travelling at 24 km/h, he reaches
industrial disputes exists or his office late by 18 minutes. The distance (in
apprehended. km) from his house to his office is:
Practice Set-1 103 YCT
(a) 16 (b) 20 115. In a code language, if KARAN is written as 45,
(c) 18 (d) 12 then how will ARUN be written as in that
108. A train leaves station A at 8 am and reaches language?
station B at 12 noon. A car leaves station B at 8 (a) 54 (b) 56
:30 am and reaches station A at the same time (c) 41 (d) 42
when the train reaches station B. At what time 116. Eight persons A, B, C, D, E, F, G and H are
do they meet ? sitting around a circular table facing opposite
(a) 10 : 22 am (b) 10 : 08 am to the centre (not necessarily in the same
(c) 9 : 38 am (d) 9 : 52 am order). B is the neighbour of E and is fourth to
109. The table below shows the number of students the right of A. Only two persons are sitting
enrolled in five colleges over the five years between E and F. Only three persons are sitting
(2010 to 2014) between G and H. B is not the neighbours of G.
D is third to the left of C.
Who can be the neighbours of A.
(a) C and D (b) H and C
(c) G and D (d) G and H
117. From the 3 sets of statements, A, B and C given
below, choose the set/s in which the third
statement is a logical conclusion of the first two
statements.
In the year 2014, what percent of students were A. Some cars are Suzuki. All Suzukis are MPVs.
enrolled in college C 2014 ? (correct to one Some cars are MPVs.
decimal place) B. All men are humans. No human is red. No man
(a) 17.3% (b) 16.9% is red.
(c) 16.7% (d) 17.1% C. Every man loves his wife. All wives are
110. If one side of a triangle is 7 with its perimeter beautiful. No beautiful has a husband.
(a) Only A (b) A and B only
equal to 18, and area equal to 108 , then the
(c) B and C only (d) Only B
other two sides are:
118. Read the given statements and conclusions
(a) 3 and 8 (b) 7 and 4
carefully. Assuming that the information given
(c) 3.5 and 7.5 (d) 6 and 5 in the statements is true, even if it appears to be
111. A hollow cylinder is made up of metal. The at variance with commonly known facts, decide
difference between outer and inner curved which of the given conclusions logically follow
2
surface area of this cylinder is 352 cm . Height (s) from the statements.
of the cylinder is 28 cm. If the total surface Statements:
area of this hollow cylinder is 2640 cm2, then
I. Some bats are balls.
what are the inner and outer radius (in cm) ?
II. All recquets are tables.
(a) 4, 6 (b) 10, 12
III. All balls are recquets.
(c) 8, 10 (d) 6, 8
Conclusion:
112. The total number of males and females in a
town is 70,000. If the number of males is I. Some bats are recquets.
increased by 6% and that of the females is II. All racquets are balls.
increased by 4%, then the total numbers of III. All tables are bats.
males and females in the town would becomes IV. All racquets are bats.
73520. What is the difference between the (a) Only III and IV follow
number of males in the town, in the beginning? (b) Only conclusion II follows
(a) 1800 (b) 1500 (c) Only conclusions I and II follow
(c) 1400 (d) 2000 (d) Only conclusion I follows
113. Select the option that is related to the third 119. Rajni was facing the north-west. She moved
term in the same way as the second term is 5m, turned left and walked 3 m. Then she
related to the first term? turned right and walked 8 m and stopped
Gravity : Discovery : : Telephone : ? there. Which direction is she facing now?
(a) Experiment (b) Explore (a) North (b) North-West
(c) Construct (d) Invention (c) South-West (d) West
114. Select the number that does not belong to the 120. The mean of the given data 12, 13, 15, 18, X, 28,
following series 18, 12, 6 and 8 is 15. Find out the median of the
5, 11, 24, 53,106, 217 given data?
(a) 5 (b) 53 (a) 14.5 (b) 13.5
(c) 11 (d) 106 (c) 14 (d) 13
Practice Set-1 104 YCT
SOLUTION : PRACTICE SET- 1
ANSWER KEY
1. (b) 16. (b) 32.(b) 48. (a) 64. (c) 80. (c) 96. (b) 112. (d)
2. (d) 17. (b) 33. (c) 49. (d) 65. (d) 81. (c) 97. (a) 113. (d)
3. (b) 18. (d) 34. (c) 50. (a) 66. (a) 82. (a) 98. (b) 114. (b)
4. (a) 19. (d) 35. (c) 51. (c) 67. (d) 83. (c) 99. (b) 115. (a)
5. (c) 20. (d) 36. (b) 52. (a) 68. (b) 84. (c) 100. (d) 116. (c)
6. (c) 21. (a) 37. (a) 53. (b) 69. (a) 85. (c) 101. (b) 117. (b)
7. (d) 22. (c) 38. (c) 54. (d) 70. (d) 86. (b) 102. (a) 118. (d)
8. (b) 23. (b) 39. (d) 55. (d) 71. (a) 87. (b) 103. (d) 119. (b)
9. (a) 24. (d) 40. (c) 56.(a) 72. (c) 88. (a) 104. (c) 120. (c)
10. (b) 25.(b) 41. (b) 57.(c) 73. (b) 89. (a) 105.(d)
11. (c) 26. (d) 42. (c) 58. (d) 74. (b) 90. (c) 106.(b)
12. (d) 27.(d) 43. (d) 59. (d) 75. (c) 91. (d) 107. (a)
13. (b) 28. (d) 44. (a) 60. (a) 76. (c) 92. (c) 108. (b)
14. (a) 29. (b) 45.(b) 61. (a) 77. (a) 93. (a) 109. (b)
15. (b) 30. (d) 46. (c) 62.(b) 78. (c) 94. (b) 110. (a)
31.(c) 47. (c) 63. (d) 79. (c) 95. (d) 111. (d)
SOLUTION
1. (b) 6. (c)
In the sentence 'Am I' is replaced by 'Aren't I', because Keen - Enthusiastic, Synonym, Eager - Eager~
am is used in Positive sentence and the question tag of
positive sentence will be in negative sentence. So Other words meaning :-
'Aren't I' is appropriate for this question tag. Dull - Insensible,
Note: If the subject of the sentence is 'I' and its helping Blunt - Abrupt,
verb, verb is ''am'' then the verb of the question tag is
'are' because 'am' is not use in question tag. Adept -expert
Correct Sentence : 7. (d)
I am suitably dressed for the occasion, aren't I? Admonish - Rebuke, Antonym - applaud Other word's
2. (d) meaning
No error warn - Advise, alert,
(i) The subject of sentence 'All of us' is in plural form
So according to sentence and tense form (Part form) the scold - Castigate,
use of 'were' is right. chide - Admonish, reprimand
(ii) little/a little is always used a 'uncountable noun' 8. (b)
wherever few/a few used a 'countable noun'.
3. (b) Loyalty- adhesion, antonym- Treason
In the following sentence subject, The children's series Other words meaning-
is a singular so it takes a singular verb. Faith- Devotion
Correct sentence– The children's series is Trust- Delegate
recommended for young readers. Fidelity- Fealty, loyalty
4. (a)
Two dozen people is a plural noun, so it takes a plural 9. (a)
verb so 'have' been killed will be filled in this sentence. One word for given group of words 'Praise given fgor
CORRECT SENTENCE- In the United States of achievement' is 'Kudos'.
America two dozen people have been killed due to the Kudos means 'acclaim' accolade.
present cold wave. 10. (b)
5. (c)
Auspicious-propitious, promising, Synonym- The meaning of following idiom/phrase 'At daggers
favourable. The meaning of other words:- drawn is bitterly hostile'
suspicious - debatable, disputable 11. (c)
playful - Frisky, frolicsome, The meaning of the given idiom/phrase 'Jumped the
hapless - ill-tated, luckless gun' is 'Acted hastily'
Practice Set-1 105 YCT
12. (d) 23. (b)
In the above sentence use 'The narrowest' in place of After the Revolt of 1857, the following changes were
'A narrowest' because narrowest is in superlative made in India by the British Government
degree. and 'the' is used before superlative degree. So (1) Government of India Act, 1858 abolished the
the correct sentence is - Although this is the narrowest company rule and the Government of India was
street, many large trucks can enter it. transferred from the hands of the company to crown
13. (b) (2) The court of directors & the Board of control were
In the above sentence 'in a year 2020' would be replaced abolished and all their powers were given to secretary
by 'in the year 2020' because 'the' article is always used of India.
for definite sense. So the correct sentence is: I think Virat (3) An Assembly of 15 members, the Council of India
Kohli will remain the captain of the Indian team in the was established.
year 2020. (4) The Governor–General was now the representative
14. (a) of the crown, so he come to be called as the 'Viceroy'.
The appropriate word would be Broken (V3) because 24. (d)
broken is used as adjective in the sentence. Chakravarti Rajagopalachari born in the village of
Correct sentence- The broken chair was discarded by Thorapalli in the Salem district of Madras Presidency
the office management. was an Indian freedom fighter, writer, lawyer and a
15. (b) prominent leader of congress. In 1930 when Mahatma
The Appropriate word would be 'Proficient' in the Gandhi conducted Dandi March in Gujarat. C.
under segment because in the sentence mentioned that Rajagopalachari also visited Vedaranyam near
she got a job of translator and she has to proficient in Tiruchirappalli, Tamil Nadu and broke salt law. He
French. named it 'Vedaranyam March'.
Correct sentence- She got a lucrative job of a 25.(b)
translator because she was proficient in French. During the Khilafat movement Gandhi felt that this was
16. (b) a golden opportunity to cement Hindu Muslim unity and
Forbid - to hinder or prevent as if by an effectual to bring Muslim masses into the national movement. He
command, Synonym, Prohibit - ediev-An expression of hope that by combining non-cooperation with Khilafat
good wishes when someone leaves. movement two main religious communities could
17. (b) collectively bring an end to colonial rule.
Perplex - a confusing situation, Synonym-‘bewilder’ 26. (d)
other options are different Mahatma Gandhi returned to India from South Africa in
18. (d) January 1915. Gandhi first important public speech was
Futile - Serving no useful purpose, antonym - in February 1916 at opening ceremony of the Banaras
Productive Hindu University. On 9 April 1919 two popular leader
meaning of other words :- of Punjab Dr. Satyapal and Dr. Saifuddin Kitchlew was
arrested. In protest against his arrest on the day of
Hollow- Concave, dented
Vaisakhi on 13 April 1919 a huge meeting was
Worthless-Junky, Vain, Chaffy organized at Jallianwala Bagh in Amritsar. Dyer
Barren - Unavailing, Abortive ordered to shoot the huge public meeting resulting into
19. (d) a horrific massacre. During World War I (1914-1918)
Antonym of given word 'Prolong' is 'Shorten' so the US, Britain, Italy, France and Germany banned the
correct option is option 'd'. press.
20. (d) 27.(d)
Given group of words 'a group of birds of one kind' "Indian National Congress agreed to end the Civil
means in is option (d) flock. Disobedience Movement was the outcome of the
21. (a) Gandhi Irwin Pact of 1931. The Gandhi-Irwin Pact is
The Nalanda Mahavihara site is in the state of Bihar, in the name given to a political agreement concluded on 5
north-eastern India. It comprises the archaeological March 1931 by Mahatma Gandhi and Lord Irwin, the
remains of a monastic and scholastic institution dating Viceroy of India. In 1930, the Salt Satyagraha was
from the 3rd century BCE to the 13th century CE. It organized in India and Gandhi attracted worldwide
includes stupas, shrines, Viharas (residential and attention. The INC participated in the Second Round
educational buildings) and important art works in Table Conference which was held in September-
stucco, stone and metal. Nalanda stands out as the most December in 1931.
ancient university of the Indian subcontinent. 28. (d)
22. (c) The revolt of 1857 was the conscious beginning of the
The Satnami movement is a religious sect founded by independence struggle against the colonial tyranny of
Guru Ghasidas in 1820 in Chhattisgarh. He preached a the British. The revolt began on May 10, 1857 at
code of ethical and dietary self restraint and social Meerut as a Sepoy muting. It was mitigated by sepoys
equality. in the Bengal presidency against the British officers.
Practice Set-1 106 YCT
29. (b) 36. (b)
The basic meaning of Satyagraha is 'urge to truth'. Truth In case of emergency declaration under Article 352 and
and Non-violence is the basic foundations of Article 356 by the President, the resolution must be
Satyagraha. These words are of Hindi language. The approved by both the houses of parliament not only by
essence of Satyagraha is while opposing injustice do not Rajya Sabha.
have animosity toward the unjust. 37. (a)
30. (d) Article 153 of the Indian Constitution under Part VI
From the above statement, only statement of option (d) deals with the Governor of states who will be appointed
is correct. Lord Cornwallis introduced an administrative by the President.
framework in 1793 in British India known as the 38. (c)
'Cornwallis Code'. Its best known provision was the The Constitution has made the following provisions to
Permanent Settlement (the Zamindari system enacted in safeguard and ensure the independent and impartial
1793), which established a revenue collection scheme. functioning of the Supreme Court-
Asiatic Society of Bengal was founded on January, 15, Mode of appointment
1784 by Sir William Jones for rediscovery of India's Security of tenure
glorious past. Battle of Plassey was fought on 23rd June Fixed service conditions
1757 in which the Nawab (ruler) of Bengal Siraj-ud- Expenses charged on the Consolidated Fund
Daulah was defeated. India's first railway service began Conduct of judges cannot be discussed
in 1853, a 34 km line between Bombay and Thane during Ban on practice after retirement
the Governorship of Lord Dalhousie who served as the Power to punish for its contempt
Governor-General of India from 1848 to 1856. Freedom to appoint its staff
31.(c) Its Jurisdiction cannot be curtailed
Surendranath Banerjee laid the foundations of the Separation from executive.
Indian National Movement by founding the Indian
39. (d)
Association at Calcutta in 1876. The main objective of
Three-tier Panchayati Raj system has been established
this Association was "to bring the people of India on
in India.
one platform on the basis of their common political
interests and objectives". It later merged with the Indian Gram Panchayats at the village level, Panchayat Samiti
National Congress. at the block level and Zila Parishad at the district level.
The Panchayat Samiti formed at the block level is the
32.(b) administrative authority.
Article 21 of the Constitution deals with Fundamental 40. (c)
Rights of Indian citizens under Part III of the
When National emergency declared under Article 352
Constitution of India. This article provides right to
i.e due to war, external aggression or armed rebellion
citizens for protection of life and personal liberty and all Fundamental Rights except those under Article 20
according to this article no person shall be deprived of and 21 are not suspended.
his life or personal liberty except according to
Article 20– deals with protection in respect of
procedure established by law.
conviction for offences.
33. (c) Article 21– deals with protection of life and personal
Article 21 of the Indian Constituton deals with "right to liberty.
personal life and liberty". Also Supreme Court has Above two Fundamental Rights are Part of Right to
interpreted this right many times and it contains Freedom.
following sub – rights :
41. (b)
Right to Health 100th Constitutional Amendment Act, 2015 notified the
Right to Shelter land boundary agreement between India and
Right to Privacy Bangladesh. The act amended the Ist schedule of the
Righ to Speedy trial etc. Constitution to exchange the disputed territories
34. (c) occupied by both the nations. India received 51
Article 43 (A) of the Constitution provides for directive Bangladesh enclaves while Bangladesh received 111
of "participation of workers in management of Indian enclaves in the Bangladeshi Mainland.
industries", it falls under Part IV of the Indian 42. (c)
Constitution which is related to Directive Principles of Physiological density means the total population
State Policy. This article was added into the constitution divided by the net cultivable land. This means that the
through 42nd Constitutional Amendment Act, 1976. total population to the net cultivable land ratio.
35. (c) Agricultural density of population means that total
The President of India appoints the Governor of a state number agricultural population divided by the net
on the advice of the Council of Ministers of the India. cultivable area.
According to article 155, President appoints the Population density is a measurement of population per
Governor by warrant under his hand and seal. unit area.
Practice Set-1 107 YCT
43. (d) 51. (c)
UNESCO Word Network of Biosphere Reserves are In India GST Bill was first introduced in 2014 as the
internationally designated protected area. That means to constitution (122nd Amendment) Bill. Govt. approval in
demonstrate a balanced relationship between people and 2016, and was renumbered in the statute of Rajya Sabha as
nature. 12 of the 18 biosphere reserves in India are a 101st Ammendment Act, 2016, which is implemented
part of the World Network of Biosphere Reserves. from 1 July, 2017. Initially GST was levied at four rates
Corbett National Park is not among them. Viz. 5%, 12%, 18% and 28%. Goods and services Tax
44. (a) Network (GSTN) is a section 8 (under new componies Act
Ozone layer is formed by the reaction of oxygen and are not for profit companies) company.
ultra violet of the atmoshphere. The Ozone layer is 52. (a)
located in the stratosphere around 15-30 km. It covers It is a category of unemployment arising from the
the entire planet and protects life on earth by absorbing mismatch between the jobs available in the market and
harmful ultraviolet B (UV-B) radiation from the sun. the skills of the available workers in the market. Many
O2 + hυ
→ O+O people in India do not get job due to lack of requisite
skills and poor education level.
O + O2 + M → O3 + M
53. (b)
45.(b)
Pradhan Mantri Kisan Samman Nidhi (PMKSN) is an
Demographic Transition Theory was developed in 1929
by Warren Thompson. It has fourth stages– initiative by the government of India in which all
farmers will get up to `6000 per year as Minimum
Stage 1 - high birth and death rate
income support. The initative was announced by Piyush
low popoulation growth
Goyal during the 2019 interim Union Budget of India
Stage 2 - high birth rate, decreasing death rate on 1 February 2019.
population growth surges 54. (d)
Stage 3 - birth rate falls, death rate remains low
When a train comes fast at plateform then train
population continue to increase remove the air and create a airpressure difference, due
Stage 4 - Birth and death rates are low to this a centripetal force pulling a man, standing close
population stays fairly low. to the plateform towards a fast moving train.
46. (c) 55. (d)
Intermediate goods can be used for producing final goods The area around a magnet that exerts a force on a
or consumer goods or it can act as input in other goods and magnet or a magnetic material is called a magnetic
constitute the final goods as an ingredient. These goods are
field. A current induced by a change in magnetic field.
also called semi furnished good.
Currents flowing in a conductor produce a magnetic
47. (c)
field. The magnetic field related to the coil may be due
There are three main components of money supply–
to the relative motion between the conductor and the
1. Currency such as notes and coins with people.
coil. Hence all the statements are correct.
2. Demand Deposits with banks such as savings and
current account. 56.(a)
3. Time deposits with banks such as fixed deposits and Newton's universal law of gravitation, every particle
recurring deposit. in the universe attracts every other particle with a
48. (a) force is directly proportional to the product of their
The Swarna Jayanti Shahari Rojgar Yojana (SJSRY) is masses and inversely proportional to the square of the
a centrally sponsored scheme which came into effect on distance between them.
1 December, 1997. It strives to provide gainful MM
employment to the urban employed and underemployed F = G 12 2
r
poor, through encouraging the setting up of self- G is a constant called universal gravitational constant.
employment ventures or provisions of wage
employment. Its value is same at all places. Its value is (6.67×10-11
Newton m2/kg2)
49. (d)
AI4 Bharat is a non-profit organization developed by 57.(c)
IIT Madras, which is open community of experts and Radio-carbon dating technique is used to estimate the
volunteers aiming to develop AI solutions for the social age of fossils. It uses carbon-14. Whereas the age of
cause in India. earth minerals and rocks is determined by dating
50. (a) uranium.
Economics is the study of the optimum utilization of 58. (d)
scarce resources with the objective to satisfy unlimited Corrosion of iron is called rusting. Corrosion occures
wants and desires. Scarcity is the most basic economic when metal formed metal oxide. Thus oxygen gas must
problem (or limited resources) that every country need for rusting. Corrosion accelerated due to the
(economy) faces. It can never be solved but managed presence of moisture in atmosphere, Hydrated iron
by choice. oxide is known as rust.
Practice Set-1 108 YCT
59. (d) 66. (a)
In sclerenchyma, thick and strong ilignified tissues are Iris controls the size of pupil which regulate the light
found which is made up of dead cells. It has thick cell entering into the eye. Iris provides colour to the eye.
wall where lignin is present. 67. (d)
60. (a) DPT vaccine, known as triple antigen,is example of
Marsupials have the typical characteristics of mammals combination vaccine.The DTP vaccine is a class of
e.g. mammary gland, three middle ear bones and true combination vaccines against three infectious diseases
hair. Marsupials are group of mammals commonly in humans: diphtheria, pertussis (whooping cough), and
thought of as pouched mammals (like the wallaby and tetanus.The vaccine components include diphtheria and
Kangaroo etc.). They give birth to the young ones but tetanus toxoids and either killed whole cells of the
they do not have long gestation times like placental bacterium that causes pertussis or pertussis antigens.The
mammals. Examples of marsupials are red kangaroo, DPT vaccine is administered as part of the childhood
and the Virginia opossum, the only native marsupial vaccines recommended by the Centers for Disease
found in United States and Canada. Control and Prevention (CDC).
61. (a) 68. (b)
Trypsin is the protein digestive enzyme in the Migration is the movement of massess from one place
pancreatic juice and hormone secreted by the pancreas to another. If the people in a large number leave a place
is Insulin. There are two enzymes in saliva called their number reduces from that place but where they go,
amylase and lipase. They mostly break down the population of that place increases which is the direct
carbohydrates and fats. Uridine phosphorylase is an indicator of measuring population change of a place.
enzyme that can convert Uridine to Uracil. Pepsin 69. (a)
enzyme in gastric juice that digests proteins such as Dial-up networking refers to a network connection that
those in meat, seeds and dairy products. is established by dialing into the network through the
62.(b) public telephone system. It can be analog or digital.
White blood cells are cells of the system, which play a 70. (d)
neighborhood in protecting the body against infectious There are four (top, bottom, left, right) margins on the
diseases and foreign bodies. These cells flow with the page. Word's default margins are 1 inch at the top and
blood throughout the body then scavenge and kill the bottom, while the left and right are 1.25 inches. We can
parasites and foreign bodies. Hence, they are called change the margin of the entire document or individual
soldiers of the body. part of the document. A space related to the margin that
63. (d) is left to bind is called a gutter. It is on two sides or on
Blood pressure about 120/80 mm Hg is considered to the top or on the left.
be normal. Blood pressure is the pressure of blood 71. (a)
within the arteries. It is produced primarily by the Cloud computing is the delivery of computing services–
contraction of the heart muscle. Its measurement is including servers, storage, databases networking,
software etc. over the internet to offer fasterer
recorded by two numbers. The first called systolic
innovation flexible resources and economies of scale.
pressure which is measured after the heart contracts and
is the highest. The second called diastolic pressure (80 72. (c)
mm Hg) is measured before the heart contracts and is BIOS (Basic Input/Output System) is a software or
firmware that enables us to start a computer system
the lowest.
after it is powered on. The BIOS is stored in the
64. (c) EPROM chip on the motherboard. This is a convertible
Myoglobin and hemoglobin are hemeproteins whose firmware ROM chip, i.e. we can update or rewrite the
physiological importance is principally related to their BIOS.
ability to bind molecular oxygen. The oxygen carried by 73. (b)
hemeproteins such as hemoglobin and myoglobin is Platform as a Service (PaaS) or application platform as
bound directly to the ferrous ion (Fe2+) atom of the heme a service is a category of cloud computing services that
prosthetic group. Both contain iron containing protein as allows customers provision, instantiate, run and manage
their central metal. Both are globular protein and both a modular bundle comprising a computing platform and
have the ligand as oxygen. one or more applications, without the complexity of
65. (d) building.
Alveoli is a bunch like structure where the lungs and the 74. (b)
blood exchange oxygen and carbon dioxide during the The discarded file in the recycle bin gets removed
process of breathing. Larynx, also known as voice box permanently when it is emptied manually recycle bin
or glottis is the passage way for air between the pharynx acts as a 'holding bay' for deleted items. In recycle bin
and trachea. deleted files are temporarily stored.
Practice Set-1 109 YCT
75. (c) 83. (c)
Japan has planned by 2023 to launch World's first Double insurance- when the same person takes
Satellite made out of wood to reduce debris. Japan's insurance from more than one insurance companies in
Sumitomo Forestry Company & Kyoto University aims respect of the same risk and the total sum insured to be
to launch the world's first wood based satellite. This insured is more than the value of the subject matter, then
will combat the problem of space Junk. it is called double insurance. In this case the principle of
76. (c) contribution of insurance applies which is
complementary to the principle of indemnify.
If the goodwill created at the time of retirements of one
partner is to be written off, then the capital accounts of 84. (c)
the remaining partners are debited in the old profit and Insurer is the party who takes the risk i.e. the person
loss ratio. who promises to indemnify in case of loss of the insured
in the insurer.
77. (a)
85. (c)
Whatever the businessman invests in his business to
Horizontal analysis is related to trend analysis. The basis
start the business is the capital of that business.
of a regular change in a time series over a long period of
Hence business capital = 50,000 + 50,000 + 1,00,000 time is called a trend. The trend will either be concave or
= 2,00,000 north of a straight line (vertical or horizontal) or side.
78. (c) 86. (b)
Raw materials are valued at cost price. Turnover ratios are used by management to evaluate the
79. (c) efficiency with which the firm manages and utilizes its
Henry Foyal, who is also known as the father of general assets. For example fixed assets turnover ratio measure
management propounded the following 14 principles of how efficiently the assets are used to generate sales.
management. 87. (b)
– Division of work Activity Ratios : This refers to the ratios that are
– Authority and Responsibility calculated for measuring the efficiency of operations of
business based on effective utilization of resources.
– Discipline
Hence, these are also known as 'Efficiency Ratios'.
– Unity of command
88. (a)
– Unity of Direction
Fixed assets are classified as tangible and intangible
– Subordination of individual interest assets. All the assets will always show a debit balance
– Remuneration Good will is a type of an intangible fixed asset which is
– Centralization shown in the balance sheet under the fixed assets. Such
– Scalar chain an item will always show a debit balance as it is an assets
– Order for the business entity.
– Equity 89. (a)
– Stability Correct match of list-I with List-II
– Initiative AS-1= (4) Disclosure Accounting polices
– Esprit de corps AS-2= (1) Valuation of inventory
80. (c) AS-3= (2) Cash flow statement
Span of control or management means that a manager AS-9= (3) Revenue Recognition
can supervise only a limited number of subordinates. 90. (c)
Span of control means how many employees or Acceding to the accounting concept an event is recorded
subordinate can be effectively managed by one manager in the accounts only when that event (Transaction) can
or how many subordinates are under one superior. Span be evaluated in currency, here the number of employees
of control depends upon capacity and intelligence level cannot be recorded in the accounts.
of managers and nature of job. 91. (d)
81. (c) Section 7 (a) of the factories Act 1948 imposes certain
Direct confirmation procedure can be applied to debtors obligations on the employer in relation to his workers,
and creditors both. which included health safety as well as welfare of the
82. (a) workers. If the employer does not implement these
Social responsibility of business is an idea that cannot obligations, financial penalty is imposed on him.
be implemented in most businesses. This statement true 92. (c)
because social responsibility of business is not a legal Workers oppose discretionary because if the
activity. Therefore the extent of responsibility towards implementation of discretionary increases the chances of
each section of the society cannot be measured. retrenchment of workers.
Practice Set-1 110 YCT
93. (a) From statement- II
Contingent liability is shown in the notes at the bottom 3 2 7
of the balance sheet, it is shown as per full disclosure < <
2 5 3 3 4 5
concept due to full disclosure concept all material facts
are disclosed. L.C.M of 2 5, 3 3 and 4 5 = 12 15
94. (b) 18 3 < 8 5 < 21 3
Patent is a type of asset which is shown on the asset side
18 ×1.7 < 8 × 2.2 < 21×1.7 (Hence it is false)
of the balance sheet generally all assets are of real
account nature. Hence it is clear that only statement I is correct.
95. (d) 103. (d)
Debenture are issued to the investors form which funds Sum of 11 numbers · 11×68 · 748
are raised. They are given debenture receipt as a promise As per question,
of repayment of capital bearing a fixed rate of interest.
Hence debenture holders receive interest on their ∴ Sum of first four numbers · 4×78 · 312
investment. Sum of next 4 numbers · 4×63 · 252
96. (b) Let, 11th number is x.
Section 2 (d) of the industrial Disputes Act, 1947
defines workman as- any person including an apprentice, ∴ 10th number is · x – 4
who does unskilled manual, supervisory, technical or And 9th number · 2x
clerical work in any industry for hire or reward, whether ∴ 2x + (x – 4) + x = 748 – (312 + 252)
employed whether the term are express or implied and
4x = 188
relate to an industrial dispute.
x = 47
97. (a)
(47 × 2) + 47
India is a founder member of the international labour ∴ Average of 9th and 11th numbers =
organization. Which came into existence in 1919. At 2
present the ILO has 187 members. 141
98. (b) = = 70.5
2
MN Joshi proposed a resolution in the central legislative 104. (c)
assembly in the year 1921 recommending that the Let income of A = 5x
government propose a bill for the registration and
Income of B = 7x
protection of trade unions.
According to the question,
99. (b)
Section 11 of the industrial disputes Act deals with the Expenditure of A = Expenditure of B × 66 2 %
3
procedure and powers of conciliation officers Board,
Courts and Tribunals. According to which under the 5x – 4000 = ( 7x − 5000 ) × 2
industrial disputes Act, the conciliation officer has no 3
power when neither an industrial dispute exists nor is it 15x – 12000 = 14x – 10000
suspected and investigate any disputes that may exist or x = 2000
are suspected. Total income of A and B = 5x + 7x = 12x = `24,000
100. (d) 105.(d)
The minimum wages Act 1948 was brought to provide Salary decrease percentage
minimum wages to the unorganized sector workers and 50 × 50
not to pay minimum wages to apprentices. = −50 + 50 − = −25%
100
101. (b)
Where (–) shows decrease
225 + 226 + 227
106.(b)
= 225 (1+21+22)
Given that–
= 225(1+2+4)
Selling price (SP) of each wrist watch – `12,600
= 225 × 7
Profit% = 26%
Hence it is divisible by 7.
Loss% = 10%
102. (a)
According to the question,
From statement- I
Cost Price (CP) of two wrist watches
2 3 5
< < 100 100
3 5 2 5 4 3 = 12600× + 12600 ×
126 90
L.C.M of 3 5, 2 5 and 4 3 = 12 15 = 10,000 + 14,000
8 3 < 18 3 < 15 5 (Hence it is true) = ` 24, 000
Practice Set-1 111 YCT
∴Total SP = 12,600 + 12,600 109. (b)
= 25,200 Total number of students enrolled in college C in year
SP − CP 2014 = 340
∴ Required profit% = × 100 Total number of students in year 2014 = 420 + 290 +
CP
340 + 480 + 480 = 2010
25200 − 24000
= × 100 340
24000 Required Percentage = × 100
1200 2010
= × 100 = 5% = 16.9%
24000
Hence, option (b) is correct. 110. (a)
107. (a) Q One side of the triangle · 7
VV t ~t
Distance = 1 2 × 1 2
∴ Sum of other two sides · (18–7) = 11
V1 ~ V2 60 Let the second side · x
30 × 24 8 Third side · (11–x)
∴ Distance from home to office = ×
6 60 18
Semi perimeter · =9
= 16 km 2
108. (b) Area of triangle = 108
Let, total distance between station A and B = x km
∴ 9 × ( 9 − 7 )( 9 − x )( 9 − 11 + x ) = 108
Time taken by train to cover x km = 4 hours
Time taken by car to cover x km = 3.5 hours 9 × 2 × ( 9 − x )( x − 2 ) = 108 (on squaring both sides)
7
= hours
2
( 9 − x )( x − 2 ) = 6
x 9x – 18 – x2 + 2x = 6
∴ Speed of train = km / h x2 – 11x + 24 = 0
4
x2 – 8x – 3x + 24 = 0
x 2x
Speed of car = = km / h (x–8) (x–3) = 0
7 7 x–8 = 0 ⇒ x = 8
2
And x–3 = 0 ⇒ x = 3
x 1 x
Distance covered by train in half hour = × = km Hence, the values of the other two sides are 3 and 8.
4 2 8 111. (d)
x Let, outer and inner radius are
∴ Remaining distance = x −
8 R and r cm respectively
7x 2π (R–r) h = 352 cm2
= km 22
8 2 × ( R − r ) × 28 = 352
Let, time when they will meet = y hours 7
x 2x 7x R – r = 2 ....... (1)
∴ y× + y× = Total surface area = 2640 cm2
4 7 8
2π (R+r) (R–r+h) = 2640
y 2y 7x
⇒ x + = 22
4 7 8 2 × × ( R + r )( 2 + 28) = 2640
7
7y + 8y 7
⇒ = R + r = 14 cm ..................(ii)
28 8 By solving the equation (i) and (ii)
15y 7 R = 8 cm, r = 6 cm
⇒ =
28 8 112. (d)
28 × 7 Let the no of males · x
∴y = No of females · (70000 – x)
8 ×15
49 According to question,
= x × 106 (70000 − x) × 104
30 + · 73520
=1 hour 38 minutes 100 100
∴ Train and car will meet at 8:30 am + 1 hour 38 106x + 7280000 − 104x
· 73520
minutes = 10:08 am 100
Practice Set-1 112 YCT
2x + 7280000 = 7352000 It is clear from above diagram that the third statement of
2x = 72000 the Set B is the logical conclusion of the first two
x = 36000 statements,
Thus the no. of male and female is 36000, 34000. → Whereas there is no logical relation of set C between
difference · 2000 statement and conclusion.
113. (d) 118. (d)
As like Newton discovered Gravity, similarly Drawing the venn diagram according to question-
Telephone was invented by Graham Bell.
114. (b)
The number series is as follows.
53 dose not belong to the given series, 51 will be come
at place of 53 It is clear from the venn diagram that some bats are
115. (a) recquets.
As like, Similarly 119. (b)
116. (c)
According to the question –
It is clear from the figure that the neighbours of A are G
and D.
117. (b) It is clear from figure that face of Rajni is in North-
According to the statements A, the Venn Diagram West.
relation is as follows. 120. (c)
mean of given 12, 13, 15, 18, x, 28, 18, 12, 6, 8
mean · 15
6 + 8 + 12 + 12 + 13 + 15 + 18 + 18 + 28 + x
= 15
10
= 130 + x = 150
x = 150 – 130 = 20
writing in ascending order to the figure
It is clear from the above diagram that third statement of
the Set A is the logical conclusion of the first two ∴ 6,8,12,12, 13,15 ,18,18, 20,28
statements. terms number here = 10(even)
According to the first two statement of Set B, the Venn
diagram relation is as follows. 1 n n
mediam· th term + +1 th term
2 2 2
1 10 10
= th term + + 1 th term
2 2 2
1 th
= [5 term + 6th term]
2
13 + 15 28
median = = = 14
2 2
Practice Set-1 113 YCT
PRACTICE SET-2
1. In the given sentence, identify the segment 10. Select the most appropriate meaning of the
which contains a grammatical error. underlined idiom in the given sentence.
People has been warning in advance about the My blood boils when I hear people abuse
coming economic crisis. children.
(a) People (b) economic crisis (a) to be very controlled
(c) in advance (d) has been warning (b) to be very concerned
2. In the Sentence identify the segment which (c) to be very angry
contains the grammatical error. (d) to be very sensitive
Ten kilometres are a long distance to cover on 11. Select the most appropriate meaning of the
foot for a child. given idiom.
(a) Ten kilometres are (b) for a child A kick in the teeth
(c) to cover on foot (d) a long distance (a) A grave setback
3. Select the most appropriate word to fill in the (b) Severe toothache
blank. (c) Removing tooth cavities
The National war memorial is____to our (d) Hitting someone hard
Armed Forces. 12. The following sentence has been split into four
(a) inscribed (b) dedicated segments. Identify the segment which contains
(c) honoured (d) devoted a grammatical error.
4. Select the most appropriate option to fill in the Deepu's mother / has repeated asked him/ to
lower the volume / of his mobile.
blank.
(a) has repeated asked him
People of the older generation _____ over the
(b) to lower the volume
good old school days.
(c) of his mobile
(a) remember (b) remind
(d) Deepu's mother
(c) retribute (d) reminisce
13. In the sentence identify the segment which
5. Select the most appropriate synonym of the
contains the grammatical error.
given word.
He is more smarter than his brother though he
BARREN does not earn much money.
(a) Fertile (b) Bountiful (a) though he does not earn
(c) Desolate (d) Fruitful (b) much money
6. Select the synonym of the given word. (c) He is more smarter
LETHAL (d) than his brother
(a) harmless (b) healthy 14. Fill in the blank with the most appropriate
(c) fatal (d) strong word.
7. Select the most appropriate antonym of the You have memorised your speech, ______ you?
given word. (a) haven't (b) hasn't
BOLD (c) didn't (d) couldn't
(a) confident (b) cheeky 15. Select the most appropriate word to fill in the
(c) brave (d) timid blank in the given sentence.
8. Select the most appropriate ANTONYM of the He is your brother _______?
given word. (a) isn't it (b) isn't he
MENACE (c) is it (d) is he
16. Select the most appropriate synonym of the
(a) balance (b) peril
given word.
(c) threat (d) comfort
GRADUAL
9. Select the most appropriate word which means (a) abrupt (b) uneven
the same as the group of words given. (c) continuous (d) hasty
Two lengths of rope, bamboo or wood with 17. Select the most appropriate synonym of the
rungs used for climbing up and down walls, given word.
sides of ships etc. Quell
(a) bridge (b) steps (a) Incite (b) Aggravate
(c) staircase (d) ladder (c) Soothe (d) Raze
Practice Set-2 114 YCT
18. In the following question, out of the given four 27. During the freedom struggle, who was the only
alternatives, select the one which is opposite in President of Indian National Congress who
meaning of the given word. resigned from the presidency even after being
Grudge. elected?
(a) Spite (b) Averse (a) Nellie Sengupta
(c) Dislike (d) Goodwill (b) Jawaharlal Nehru
19. Select the most appropriate ANTONYM of the (c) JB Kripalini
given word. (d) Subhash Chandra Bose
PERISH 28. In 1917, Mahatma Gandhi organised a
(a) Vanish (b) Wither satyagraha for the peasants of Kheda district of
(c) Grow (d) Crumble Gujarat. The satyagraha was for the demand
20. Select the most appropriate word which means of:
the same as the group of words given. (a) relaxation in revenue collection
One who is easily deceived (b) improvement in irrigation facilities
(a) delible (b) gullible (c) better quality seeds
(c) incorrigible (d) infallible (d) a health centre
21. In which of the following states is Kardang 29. "Abhinav Bharat" was founded in 1904 as a
Monastery situated ? secret society of revolutionaries by:
(a) West Bengal (b) Sikkim (a) Damodar Chapekar (b) V.D. Savarkar
(c) Karnataka (d) Himachal Pradesh (c) Praffula Chaki (d) Khudiram Bose
22. ………..was a Hindu saint associated with the 30. Who propounded the "Doctrine of Passive
Bhakti movement and the Varkari sect of Resistance?
Maharashtra. (a) Balgangadhar Tilak
(a) Kanhopatra (b) Gora Kumbhar (b) Aurobindo Ghosh
(c) Namdev (d) Samarth Ramdas (c) Lala Lajpat Rai
23. In 1942, which of the following British (d) Bipin Chandra Pal
delegations came to India to hold talks with 31. Edwin Lutyens and Herbert Baker are two
Indian leaders on their demands? architects to have designed the city of :
(a) Cabinet Mission (a) Allahabad (b) Chandigarh
(b) Cripps Mission (c) Raipur (d) New Delhi
(c) Simon Commission 32. Which of the following provisions of the Indian
(d) Sargent Commission Constitution is correctly paired with the article
24. The ideas of Non-Cooperation movement pertaining to it ?
during freedom struggle did not envisage on__. (a) Prohibition of traffic in human beings -
(a) the bycott of civil services Article 24
(b) the bycott of Foreign goods (b) Right to Education - Article 22A
(c) Common riots (violence) (c) Prohibition of employment of any child
(d) the surrender of British titles below fourteen years of age in any factory or
25. What was the Rowlatt Act (1919) all about ? mine - Article 23
(a) It allowed peaceful processions to take place (d) Protection of life and personal liberty -
(b) It repressed political activities and allowed Article 21
detention of political prisoners without trial 33. Article 31B of the Indian Constitution
for two years “Validation of certain Acts and Regulations”
(c) It was formulated to ban all mass protests deals with the _______.
(d) It was against non-cooperation movement (a) State Government
26. Arrange the following events in chronological (b) Union Government
order and select the correct option from those (c) Directive Principles of State Policy
given below (d) Fundamental Rights of the Indian Citizen
1. Death of Chandra Shekhar Azad 34. Article 42 of the Indian Constitution
2. Kakori Conspiracy "Provision for just and human conditions of
3. Formation of Indian National army by work and maternity relief" deals with?
Mohan Singh (a) the Union Government
4. The Champaran Satyagraha (b) the State Government
(a) 2-4-1-3 (b) 2-4-3-1 (c) the Fundamental Rights of the Indian Citizen
(c) 4-2-3-1 (d) 4-2-1-3 (d) the Directive Principles of State Policy
Practice Set-2 115 YCT
35. With whose consultation does the President 42. Which of the following factors is not
convene and prorogue all sessions of responsible for the loss of fertility of
Parliament? agricultural land?
(a) The Speaker (a) Salinisation of soil
(b) Higher cation exchanger capacity of soil
(b) The Prime Minister
(c) Alkalisation of soil
(c) The Prime Minister and the leader of the
(d) Waterlogging
opposition in Lok Sabha 43. What are the major biodiversity hotspots of India?
(d) The Council of Ministers 1. Western Ghats, 2. North East India
36. .......... holds office from the date of his/her 3. Sundalands
election till immediately before the first (a) 1, 2 and 3 (b) Only 1
meeting of the Lok Sabha after the dissolution (c) Only 2 (d) 1 and 2
of the one to which he/she was elected. 44. Development of humans along with sustaining
(a) Speaker the ability of natural system is called______.
(b) Minister of Parliamentary Affairs (a) Unbelievable development
(c) Minister of Information and Broadcasting (b) Environment development
(d) Vice President (c) Sustainable development
(d) Social development
37. According to Article 361 of the Constitution of
45. In terms of area, which is the smallest Union
India, a criminal proceeding cannot be Territory of India?
instituted in a court against the –––––––– (a) Lakshadweep
during his term of office. (b) Jammu and Kashmir
(a) Governor (b) Vice-President (c) Ladakh
(c) Prime Minister (d) Chief Minister (d) Daman and Diu
38. Which one of the following is related to 46. What kind of relationship exists between
Advisory Jurisdiction of the Supreme Court? income and demand in case of normal goods?
(a) Election Commission seeking opinion from (a) Sometimes there is a direct and sometimes an
the Supreme Court inverse relationship
(b) States seeking opinion from the Supreme (b) There is a direct relationship
Court (c) There is an inverse relationship
(c) President of India seeks opinion on law or (d) There is no impact of income on demand
facts 47. Equilibrium output is determined by:
(a) the equality between Marginal cost &
(d) Speaker of the Parliament seeking opinion Marginal revenue.
from the Supreme court (b) the equality between Average cost &
39. Which of the following is not a work of Election Average revenue.
Commission? (c) the equality between total Variable cost &
(a) Allotment of election symbols Marginal revenue
(b) Fixing of election dates (d) the equality between total cost & total revenue.
(c) Keeping the fairness of the election 48. 'Per Drop More Crop' is the goal for which
(d) Selecting Candidates for election Government of India scheme?
(a) Pradhan Mantri Krishi Sinchayee Yojana
40. Article 356 of the Indian Constitution is about: (PMKSY)
(a) Directive Principles of State Policy (b) Pradhan Mantri Awaas Yojana Gramin
(b) Imposition of President's Rule in States (PMAY-G)
(c) Hindi as official language (c) Pradhan Mantri Jan-Dhan Yojana (PMJDY)
(d) Special status to Kashmir (d) Pradhan Mantri Mudra Yojana (PMMY)
41. The total number of ministers, including the 49. Which of the following is a part of machinery
Chief Minister, in the Council of Ministers in a that settles industrial disputes?
state: (a) Labour Court
(a) cannot be more than 21% of the total number (b) Industrial Tribunal
of members of the Legislative Assembly of (c) Work Committee
that state (d) All options are correct
50. The Economic Survey of India is prepared
(b) cannot be more than 21 under whose guidance?
(c) cannot be more than 15% of the total number (a) Finance Commission
of members of the Legislative Assembly of (b) Finance Minister
that state (c) RBI Governor
(d) cannot be more than 31 (d) Chief Economic Advisor
Practice Set-2 116 YCT
51. Tax reforms is related to reforms in the 61. What is the definition for the term
governments taxation and public expenditure 'hibernation'?
policies which are honorably known (a) A state of hyperactivity in spring time among
(a) Fiscal reform (b) Financial reform birds
(c) Financial Policy (d) Fiscal policy (b) Building of habitat (nests) by birds to save
52. Expenditure that increases productive capacity themselves in rainy season
are examples of what kind of expenditure? (c) A state of reduced metabolic activity during
(a) Revenue expenditure winter season among some animals
(b) Production expenditure (d) A habit of food conservation during summer
(c) Investment expenditure season for winter among animals
(d) Capital expenditure
62. Which of the following bacterium causes crown
53. To control illegal (illegal) currency collection,
gall disease in plants?
the Reserve Bank of India recently established
a portal, what is its name? (a) Bacillus thuringiensis
(a) Sahyog (b) Sahayata (b) Agrobacterium tumefaciens
(c) Sampark (d) Sachet (c) Pseudomonas fluorescens
54. Heat is which component of habitat? (d) None of these
(a) Biotic component 63. Majority of the fungal bionts of lichens belong to:
(b) Abiotic component (a) Basidiomycetes (b) Ascomycetes
(c) Both Biotic and Abiotic component (c) Gomycetes (d) Deuteromycetes
(d) Neither of the two components 64. Which of the following diseases is caused by
55. What is the name of the phenomena (driven by bacteria?
the scattering of light) in which mountain tops (a) Rubella (b) Zika fever
acquire a rosy or orange colour around sunrise (c) Polio (d) Diphtheria
and sunset ?
65. Which of the following hormones does NOT
(a) Circle of confusion
belong to the reproductive system?
(b) Barrel distortion
(a) Progesterone hormone
(c) Brillouin scattering
(d) Alpenglow (b) Adrenaline hormone
56. In projectile motion, the total flight time is…… (c) Estrogen hormone
(a) equal to the time required to Reach the (d) Testosterone hormone
maximum height 66. How many molecules of ATP are obtained by
(b) thrice the time required to Reach the the respiration of one molecule of glucose?
maximum height (a) 38 (b) 4
(c) four times the time required to reach the (c) 2 (d) 36
maximum height 67. Which of the following statements about
(d) twice the time required to reach the maximum phloem transport is correct?
height
(a) Phloem transport occurs unidirectionally
57. Among the following, respiration is which type
of process? (b) Sugar is transported in phloem as non-
(a) Exothermic process only reducing sugar
(b) Endothermic process only (c) Ca+ is the most abundant cation in phloem sap
(c) Both exothermic and endothermic (d) Gravity influences phloem transport
(d) Neither exothermic nor endothermic 68. Which cell organelle helps in keeping the cell
58. For what is radiocarbon dating technique clean by digesting any external material and
used? defective cell organelle?
(a) To estimate soil contamination (a) Golgi Apparatus (b) Mitochondria
(b) To estimate the amount of water in fossils (c) Plastids (d) Lysosome
(c) To estimate the age of fossils 69. Organized files can be stored in which of the
(d) To estimate the quality of soil following?
59. Which enzyme is present in all members of the (a) Folder (b) Label
animal except Protozoa?
(c) Index (d) Filler
(a) Insulin (b) Pepsin
70. Where is the taskbar placed in Microsoft
(c) Renin (d) Amylase
Windows in the default settings?
60. Which type of Red Blood Cells secrete
(a) At the top of the screen
histamine, serotonin, heparin, etc., and are
involved in inflammatory reactions? (b) At the bottom of the screen
(a) neutrophils (b) basophils (c) At the center of the screen
(c) lymphocytes (d) monocytes (d) At no place on the screen
Practice Set-2 117 YCT
71. Malicious software is any program or file that 81. The training given to employees to acquaint
is harmful to a computer user. Which of the them with organizational policies, objectives
following is malicious software? and facilities is called:
(a) Malware (a) On the job training
(b) Nero Burning ROM (b) Induction
(c) Bonjour (c) Promotional training
(d) CCleaner (d) Refresher training
72. Which mechanism is used by the computer virus 82. Share premium money can not be utilized in :
‘worm’ to duplicate itself ? (a) Issuing bonus shares
(a) Swap (b) Increment (b) Writing off preliminary expenses
(c) Spawn (d) Swarm (c) Writing off discount on issue of debentures
73. Which of these is not a Database Management (d) Paying cash dividend to shareholders
System (DBMS)? 83. The maximum number of partners in a
(a) Sybase (b) SAP HANA Partnership Firm has been specified in
(c) MySQL (d) Cosmos (a) Partnership Act, 1932
74. Money transfer through mobile is called.......... (b) Companies Act, 1956
(a) IFSC (b) ATM (c) Contract Act, 1872
(c) IMPS (d) IFS (d) Negatiable Instruments Act, 1882
84. Which one of the following pairs is not
75. Which of the following is the application of
correctly matched?
sciences such as physics, chemistry, biology,
(a) Sinking Fund Life Insurance Policy
computer science and engineering to matters of
law and to the identification of various facts of (b) Consequential Fire Insurance
civilian investigation? Loss Policy
(a) Kalology (b) Morphology (c) Reinstatement Marine Insurance Policy
(d) Workers' Sickness Employees State
(c) Forensic science (d) Psychology
Insurance
76. Recording of decline in the value of patents,
85. 'Primage' is included in:
copyright and goodwill is called as
(a) Railway freight
(a) Depreciation
(b) Shipping freight
(b) Amortisation
(c) Amount of foreign bill of exchange
(c) Depletion
(d) Excise duties
(d) None of the above
86. In case net sale in a year is Rs. 2,00,000 and the
77. Leasehold property is generally depreciated by amount of debtors is Rs. 40,000 the average
(a) Annuity Method collection period will be :
(b) Fixed Installment Method (a) 60 days (b) 45 days
(c) Reducing Balance Method (c) 73 days (d) 75 days
(d) Insurance Policy Method
87. Return outward book makes a record of
78. A business is having adjusted net profit of Rs. (a) Goods returned to the supplier's
2,00,000 and capital employed worth Rs.
(b) Goods returned to customer's
12,50,000 and if the goodwill is taken at 3 years
(c) Goods returned to proprietor
purchase of super profits and the expected rate
of return is 10%, the goodwill be valued at : (d) Goods returned to neighbour's
88. Opening Stock 10000
(a) ` 2,00,000 (b) ` 2,25,000
Purchases 90000
(c) ` 2,50,000 (d) ` 3,00,000 Closing Stock
79. When interest is to be allowed on the capitals of Gross profit 10% on sale
the partners, it is generally calculated on the: The amount of sales will be-
(a) Capital in the beginning of the year (a) ` 60000 (b) ` 72000
(b) Capital in the end of the year (c) ` 80000 (d) ` 90000
(c) Average capital 89. According to Money Measurement Concepts
(d) Capital at the end of the year less drawings, if which will be recorded in the books of
any accounts?
80. The entire ship is taken on hire, which of the (a) Quality Control in business
document is issued by the Shipping Company? (b) Commission payable to a salesman
(a) Charter Party (b) Railway Receipt (c) Team spirit of the employee
(c) Bill of Lading (d) Mate's Receipt (d) All of above
Practice Set-2 118 YCT
90. Prepaid Insurance Account is 99. "Works Committee under the Industrial
(a) A expenditure Disputes Act should be substituted by an
(b) A revenue 'Industrial Relations Committee' to promote
in-house dispute settlement." This
(c) An asset recommendation was made by
(d) A liability (a) Royal Commission on Labour
91. The First Factories Act was enacted in (b) National Commission on Labour 1969
(a) 1881 (b) 1895 (c) national Commission on Labour 2002
(c) 1897 (d) 1885 (d) National Commission for enterprises in the
92. According to Need-Hierarchy theory of Unorganised Sector
Maslow, the levels of need hierarch are : 100. International Labour organization is agency of
(a) 3 (b) 2 (a) IBRD
(b) Un Security Council
(c) 4 (d) 5
(c) International fund for Agricultural Develop-
93. The exporter has to fill in the shipping bill : ment
(a) Single (d) United Nations
(b) In duplicate 101. If A is the smallest three digit number divisible
(c) In triplicate by both 6 and 7 and B is the largest four digit
(d) In quadruplicate number divisible by both 6 and 7, then what is
the value of B – A?
94. Purchases good for cash from Suresh of Rs.
(a) 9912 (b) 9870
5000 the journal entry will be:
(c) 9996 (d) 9954
(a) Purchases A/C Dr.5000 To Suresh 5000
1
(b) Suresh A/C Dr. 5000 To Purchases 5000 102. The value of is closest to:
(c) Cash A/C Dr. 5000 To Purchases A/C 17 + 12 2
5000 (a) 0.17 (b) 1.2
(d) Purchases A/C Dr.5000 To Cash A/C 5000 (c) 1.4 (d) 0.14
103. The average of 41 consecutive odd numbers is
95. Double Entry system was propounded by 49. What is the largest number.
(a) Carter (a) 89 (b) 91
(b) Pickles (c) 93 (d) 95
(c) Malthus 104. A sum of `8,200 was divided among A, B and C
(d) Lucas Pacioli in such a way that A had `500 more than B and
96. Depreciation refer's to : C had `300 more than A. How much was C's
(a) Fixed Asset share (in `)?
(a) 2,300 (b) 2,800
(b) Goodwill
(c) 3,100 (d) 2,000
(c) Floating Asset 105. In an election between two candidates, 5% of
(d) All of above the registered voters did cast their vote. 10% of
97. In which of the following cases the Supreme the votes were found to be either invalid or of
Court held that medical representative is not NOTA. The winning candidate received 60%
workman? votes in his favour and won the election by
(a) Standard Vacuum Oil Company v. 17271 votes. Find the number of registered
voters.
Commissioner of Labour
(a) 90525 (b) 100000
(b) Anand Bazar Patrika v. Its Workmen (c) 101000 (d) 102500
(c) Workmen v. Greaves Cotton and Co. 106. A man sells two articles at `9,975 each. He
(d) J and J Dechane v. State of Kerala gains 5% on one article and loses 5% on the
98. In which of the following cases the court other. Find his overall gain or loss.
reiterated the well-known legal position that (a) `50 Loss (b) `60 Loss
even a temporary worker can claim (c) `50 Profit (d) `60 Profit
retrenchment compensation, if he is covered by 107. To cover a distance of 416 km, a train A takes
the provisions of section 25F of the Industrial 2
2 hours more than train B. If the speed of A
Disputes Act, 1947? 3
(a) Tatangar Foundry Co. v. Their Workmen 1
(b) Management of Willcox Buckwell (India) is doubled, it would take 1 hours less than B.
3
Ltd. v. Jagannath What is the speed (in km/h) of train A ?
(c) Barsi Light ailway Co. Ltd. v. Joglekr (a) 54 (b) 56
(d) Modern Stores v. Krishandas (c) 52 (d) 65
Practice Set-2 119 YCT
108. A boat can cover a distance of 7.2 km 114. If 'P' means '+', 'Q' means '–', 'R' means '×'
downstream and 3.2 km upstream in 2 hours. and 'S' means '÷', then find the value of the
It can also cover 1.5 km downstream and 0.6 following expression.
km upstream in 24 minutes. What is the speed 2 1
S Q7P7R5
of the boat when going downstream (in km/h)? 3 3
1 1 (a) 30 (b) 50
(a) 4 km (b) 7 km (c) 10 (d) 40
2 2
115. Four words have been given, out of which three
(c) 6 km (d) 5 km
are alike in some manner and one is different,
109. The following table shows the daily earnings of select the odd one.
45 skilled workers. (a) Reduce (b) Enhance
Earnings 700 - 800 - 900 - 1000 - 1100 - 1200 - (c) Raise (d) Increase
(in Rs.) 800 900 1000 1100 1200 1300 116. Select the number from among the given
options that can replace the question mark (?)
(No. of 4 15 10 10 4 2
in the following table.
workers )
5 4 3
How many workers earn less than `1,100 in a 6 5 4
day?
7 6 5
(a) 43 (b) 29
384 245 ?
(c) 39 (d) 10
(a) 144 (b) 269
110. The area of a circular park is 12474 m2. There
(c) 249 (d) 244
is 3.5 m wide path around the park. What is
117. Select the Venn diagram from the given options
22 that best represents the relationship between
the area (in m2) of the path ? (Take π = ):
7 the given set of classes.
(a) 1424.5 (b) 1435.5 Prose, Literature and Poetry
(c) 1440.5 (d) 1380.5
111. A hemispherical bowl of internal diameter 36 (a) (b)
cm is full of a liquid. This liquid is to be filled
into cylindrical bottles each of radius 3 cm and
height 12 cm. How many such bottles are (c) (d)
required to empty the bowl ?
(a) 54 (b) 36
118. Select the option that is related to the third
(c) 72 (d) 27
term in the same way as the second term is
112. In a school, 4% of the students did not appear related to the first term.
for the annual exams. 10% of the students who Nepal : Cow :: India : ?
appeared for the exams could not pass the (a) Tiger (b) Lion
exam. Out of the remaining students, 50% got (c) Peacock (d) Rhinoceros
distinction marks and 432 students passed the 119. Select the number from among the given
exam but could not get distinction marks. The options that can replace the question mark (?)
total number of students in the school is: in the following series –
(a) 960 (b) 878 126, 217, 344, ?
(c) 1000 (d) 1200 (a) 470 (b) 614
113. Monica and Chandler are siblings. Chandler is (c) 513 (d) 688
the nephew of Grace and the father of Maria. 120. Find out the mode of the given distribution–
Kathy is the sister of Grace. Phoebe is the Class 1–10 10–20 20–30 30–40 40–50 50–60
mother of Kathy. How is Monica related to interval
Phoebe? Frequency 3 16 26 31 16 8
(a) Grand daughter (b) Aunt (a) 34.5 (b) 35
(c) Niece (d) Daughter (c) 42 (d) 32.5
Practice Set-2 120 YCT
SOLUTION : PRACTICE SET- 2
ANSWER KEY
1. (d) 17. (c) 33. (d) 49. (d) 65. (b) 81. (b) 97. (d) 113. (a)
2. (a) 18. (d) 34. (d) 50. (d) 66. (a) 82. (d) 98. (b) 114. (a)
3. (b) 19. (c) 35. (b) 51. (d) 67. (b) 83. (b) 99. (c)
115. (a)
4. (d) 20. (b) 36. (a) 52. (c) 68. (d) 84. (c) 100. (d)
116. (a)
5. (c) 21. (d) 37. (a) 53.(d) 69. (a) 85. (b) 101. (b)
6. (c) 22. (b) 38. (c) 54. (b) 70. (b) 86. (c) 102. (a) 117. (b)
7. (d) 23. (b) 39. (d) 55. (d) 71. (a) 87. (a) 103. (a) 118. (a)
8. (d) 24. (c) 40. (b) 56. (d) 72. (c) 88. (c) 104. (c) 119. (c)
9. (d) 25. (b) 41. (c) 57. (a) 73. (d) 89. (b) 105. (c) 120. (d)
10. (c) 26. (d) 42. (b) 58.(c) 74. (c) 90. (c) 106. (a)
11. (a) 27. (d) 43.(a) 59. (d) 75. (c) 91. (a) 107. (c)
12. (a) 28. (a) 44. (c) 60. (b) 76. (b) 92. (d) 108. (c)
13. (c) 29. (b) 45. (a) 61. (c) 77. (a) 93. (c) 109. (c)
14. (a) 30. (b) 46. (b) 62. (b) 78. (b) 94. (d) 110. (a)
15. (b) 31. (d) 47. (a) 63. (b) 79. (a) 95. (d) 111. (b)
16. (c) 32. (d) 48. (a) 64. (d) 80. (a) 96. (a) 112. (c)
SOLUTION
1. (d) 6. (c)
In the above sentence 'people has been' replaced by 'People Lethal-Capable of causing death, Synonym - fatal The
have been' because 'people' is plural subject and plural meaning of other words:-
subject takes plural verb. The correct sentence is:- Harmless - Free from harm, innocuous, hurtless
"People have been warning in advance about the Healthy - Free from disease, goodly, largish
coming economic crisis" 7. (d)
2. (a) Bold-fearless before danger, Antonym - timid that
In the following sentence 'Ten kilometres are' replaced means coward.
by 'Ten kilometers is' because (one, two ....... ten) is 8. (d)
cordinal adjective and the use of kilometers denotes
certain distance so verb is always in singular form. Menace-to make a show of intention to harm, Antonym -
Correct Sentence- 'comfort' (to ease the grief or trouble of)
Ten kilometres is a long distance to cover on foot for a 9. (d)
child. In the given group of words the best one word will be
3. (b) ladder something that resembles.
In the blank space of the sentence according to sense 10. (c)
of sentence the appropriate word is option (b) Idiom 'Blood boils' means very angry. So the best
dedicated. That means 'devoted' to a cause, ideal, or meaning is option (c) 'To be very angry.
purpose. 11. (a)
Correct sentence– The appropriate meaning for given idiom 'A kick in the
The National war memorial is dedicated to our Armed teeth' is 'A grave setback' so the option (a) is right.
Forces. 12. (a)
4. (d) In the above sentence use 'repeatedly' in place of 'has
The exact word according to sentence in filler part will repeated' because according to we of 'Asked' it would
be Reminisce. That means to memories happy moment be appropriate to use on adverb before it.
of life such as writing, thinking or other fun moment. In Correct Sentence -
the sentence the old one memories one's school time. Deepu's mother repeatedly asked him to lower the
Correct Sentence volume of his mobile.
People of the older generation reminisce over the good 13. (c)
old school days. In the above sentence use 'He is smarter' in place of ' He
5. (c) is more smarter ' because double comparative degree is
Barren- not reproducing, synonym - 'desolate' The not allowed in any sentence. So the correct sentence is:
meaning of other sentence is :- Correct Sentence : -
Fertile - Capable of producing fruits, grains. He is smarter than his brother though he does not earn
Bountiful - Given or provided abundantly, openhanded much money.
Practice Set-2 121 YCT
14. (a) of Dominion Status after the war was a "post-dated
Use 'Haven't' if filler part of the sentence because cheque drawn on a failing bank". It is also believed that
question tag for positive sentence is always negative the mission failed because of a clear lack of support for
question tag. it by contemporaneous Viceroy Linlithgow, British PM
Correct Sentence – Winston Churchill and the Secretary of State for India,
You have memorised your speech haven't you? Leo Amery. After the failure of the mission, Cripps
15. (b) returned to England, and the Congress-led by Gandhiji
In this sentence we have to find appropriate question tag started their new campaign, 'The Quit India Movement'
in August 1942.
and a positive sentence has negative question tag and
vice=versa. So for this sentence the appropriate question 24. (c)
tag will be 'isn't he'. The ideas of Non-Cooperation movement during
Correct sentence- He is your brother isn't he? freedom struggle did not envisage on common riots
(violence). The non-cooperation movement was an
16. (c)
important phase of the Indian Independence movement
The synonym of gradual is continuous meaning of from British rule. It aimed to resist British Rule in India
other words is: through non-violent means i.e. 'Ahimsa'. This principle
abrupt - Sudeten and unexpected, unceremonious was given by Mahatma Gandhi.
uneven - Aslant, crooked, slanted 25. (b)
hasty - done or made in a hurry, blistering, breakneck. Rowlatt Satyagraha was in response to the British
17. (c) government enacting the Anarchical and Revolutionary
The synonym of 'Quell' is soothe meaning of other Crimes Act 1919 popularly known as the Rowlatt Act.
words is : This committee was headed by Justice S.A.T. Rowlett.
Incite - to move to action, arouse, encourage It gave the government enormous powers to repress
Aggravate - to make worse, more serious, annoy, bother political activities and allowed detention of political
Raze - Annihilate, decimate, demolish prisoners without trial for indefinite period of time.
18. (d) 26. (d)
The Antonym of 'Grudge' is 'Goodwill' meaning of other The following events are arranged in a chronological
words is: order as–
Spite-Cattiness, hatefulness, malevolence 1. Champaran Satyagraha in April 1917.
Dislike-Aversion, disfavor, disliking 2. The Kakori conspiracy (U.P. Government has
19. (c) renamed it as 'Train Action Day') took place on 9th
August 1925.
Antonym of word Perish is grow the meaning of other
words is :- 3. Death of Chandra Shekhar Azad on 27 February
1931.
Vanish– Dematerialize, disappear, dissolve
4. The Indian National Army (INA) was formed in
Wither– decay, droop, emaciate
1942 under leadership of Captain Mohan Singh.
Crumble– Atrophy, degenerate, descend
27. (d)
20. (b)
The only president of the Indian National Congress
Given group of words 'One who is easily deceived'
during the Indian war of Independence who resigned
means 'gullible' meaning of other words:-
from the Presidency even after being elected was
Incorrigible-Incapable of being corrected or amended Netaji Subhash Chandra Bose who defeated Pattabhi
Infallible- Incapable of error, certain, unfailing Sitaramayya by 203 votes in January 1939 in Tripuri
21. (d) session and later resigned because of tensions
Kardang Monastery is a famous pilgrimage place of increased between Bose and Mahatma Gandhi. Gandhi
Buddhism which is located in Lahaul – Spiti district of took Sitaramayya's defeat as his own defeat and within
Himachal Pradesh. This Monastery is situated 3500 the Congress he established his own party called All
meters above sea level on the banks of the Bhaga River. India Forward Bloc (1939).
This monastery is known for its attractive architecture 28. (a)
murals and collection of Thangas paintings and
instruments. In 1917, Mahatma Gandhi organised a Satyagraha for
the peasants of Kheda district of Gujarat. The
22. (b) Satyagraha was for the demand of relaxation in revenue
Sage Gora kumbhar was a Hindu saint. He was associated collection. Gandhiji was the spiritual head while Sardar
with Bhakti movement and Varkari sect of Maharashtra. He Vallabhbhai Patel was head of this movement.
was a contemporary of Namadeva. Gora Kumbhar was an
exclusive devotee of Vitthal of Pandharpur. 29. (b)
23. (b) 'Abhinav Bharat' was founded in 1904 by Vinayak
Damodar Savarkar. It was initially a secret named
Cripps Mission was sent by the British Government in
March 1942 to India with key objective to secure Indian 'Mitra Mela'. Apart from Maharashtra its branches were
cooperation and support for British War Efforts. It was also established in Karnataka and Madhya Pradesh. Its
headed by Sir Stafford Cripps. This mission sought to annual conference was held in secret. In 1906 Savarkar
negotiate an agreement with Indian leaders. The moved to London yet this organization continued. He
Mission was rejected by the INC, the Muslim League was the one who called the revolt of 1857 as the "first
and other Indian groups. Gandhiji said that Cripps' offer planned Indian Independence war".
Practice Set-2 122 YCT
30. (b) 40. (b)
The Doctrine of "Passive Resistance" was highlighted Article 356 of the Constitution of India gives power to
by Aurobindo Ghosh. Aurobindo was against the the President of India to suspend state government and
moderates theory of "Politics of Petition" along with impose president's rule in any state in the country on
Tilak belonged to the Extremist section. In place of report of the Governor of that state, if he is satisfied that
"prayer, petition, protest and please" he advocated the a situation has arisen in which the government of the
more radical policy of boycott. state cannot be carried on in accordance with the
31. (d) provisions of the constitution. 'It is also known as 'state
Edwin Lutyens, architect and designer of the imperial emergency' or constitutional emergency'.
capital of Delhi and leading architect Herbert Baker 41. (c)
are credited with the construction of Rashtrapati
Bhavan and twin Secretariat buildings (Now the North In the Constitution of India, it has been envisaged that
an South Blocks). the Council of Ministers must not exceed 15% of the
32. (d) total number of members of the Legislative Assembly
The article 21 of the Indian Constitution guarantees its of that state.
citizens protection of life and personal liberty. The (i) Lok Sabha in case of Central Legislature.
article states that no person shall be deprived of his life (ii) State Legislative assembly in case of concerned
or personal liberty except according to procedures state legislature.
established by law. This limitation is exercised after the 91th
33. (d) amendment of the constitution.
Article 31 (B) of the Indian Constitution deals with the 42. (b)
Fundamental Rights of Indian Citizens under Part III of The salinisation of soil,alkalisation of soil,
the Constitution. The article provides for validation of waterlogging lead to the loss of fertility of agricultural
certain categories of acts and regulations included in land. Cation exchange capacity (CEC) is a measure of
Ninth schedule from being challenged and invalidated the soil's ability to hold positively charged ions. Higher
on grounds of contravention of any Fundamental Right. the CEC then higher will be its fertility. Hence it is not
34. (d) a factor of losing of soil fertility.
Article 36-51 under Part IV of Indian Constitution deals
43.(a)
with directive principles of state policy. Borrowed from
Irish Constitution, has the Article 42 'provisions for just Biodiversity is referred to as the variation of plant &
and human condition of work and maternity relief'. animal species in a particular habitat. There are four out
35. (b) of the 36 Biodiversity Hotspots in the world which are
The President convene and prorogue all sessions of present in India :-
Parliament in consultation with the Prime Minister. 1. Himalayas
36. (a) 2. Indo–Burma Region (North East India)
According to the provisions of the Indian Constitution, 3. The Western Ghats
the tenure of Lok Sabha speaker does not end with that 4. Sundaland (includes Nicobar Islands).
of Lok Sabha. He/she holds the office until before the 44. (c)
first meeting of a newly elected Lok Sabha. Development of human along with sustaining the
37. (a) ability of natural system is called as sustainable
The article 361 of the Indian Constitution gives development. Sustainable development is development
protection to the President and Governor with respect to that meets the need of the present without
their performing of duties. So according to this Article compromising the ability of future generation to meet
no any criminal proceeding may be carried out against their own needs.
President or Governor in any court during their term of
office. It means the president, the Governor or 45. (a)
Rajpramukh of state, shall not be answerable to any In terms of area, Union Terrotories are–
court for the exercise of his duties and powers. (1) Lakshadweep - 32.62 km2 (smallest)
38. (c) (2) Chandigarh - 114 km2
The Supreme Court of India has Advisory Jurisdiction (3) Puducherry - 479 km2
in matters which may specifically be referred to it by (4) Dadra & Nagra Haveli and Daman & Diu - 603 km2
the President of India under Article 143 of the (5) Delhi - 1,484 km2
Constitution. The advice given by the Supreme Court is (6) Andaman and Nicobar Islands - 8,249 km2
not binding on the President.
(7) Ladakh - 96,701 km2
39. (d)
(8) Jammu & Kashmir - 125,535 km2 (largest)
The Election Commission of India is an autonomous
constitutional authority under the Article 324, that is 46. (b)
responsible for administering union and state election In case of normal goods, income and demand are
process in India and the offices of the President and Vice directly related, it means that an increase in income will
President in the country. The Election Commission prepares, cause demand to rise and decrease in income causes
maintains and periodically updates the electoral rolls, while demand to fall. Normal good are food staples, clothing
selecting candidates for election is not its function. and household appliances.
Practice Set-2 123 YCT
47. (a) 55. (d)
MC = MR is a point at which producer keep production Alpenglow is the name of The phenomena (driven by
constant because producing extra unit beyond this point the scattering of light) in which mountain tops aquire a
creates higher marginal cost for the firm that it creates rosy or orange colour around sunrise and Sunset.
marginal revenue. If MC < MR ⇒ it is not profitable for 56. (d)
firm to produce an extra unit of output. Firm should cut
down its production.
48. (a)
"Per Drop More Crop" is one of the major component of
Pradhan Mantri Krishi Sinchayee Yojana. It is a central
sponsored scheme launched in 2015 by Department of
Agriculture, Co-operation & Farmers welfare. T = t1+ t2 where t1 = t2
49. (d) The time between throwing a body at a height and
Industrial dispute act, 1947 provides for industrial falling back to the earth is called aviation period. The
dispute settlement machinery as follows- body reaches its maximum height (H) during the
1. Conciliation 2. Court of enquiry 3. Voluntary projectile motion and falls back to earth, thus the
aviation period of the body is double the time it takes
arbitration 4. Adjudication-Labour courts, Industrial
to reach its maximum height. (T = t1 + t2 where t1 = t2)
Tribunal, National Tribunal
57. (a)
50. (d)
The chemical reaction in which heat is produced is
The economic survey is prepared by the Economic
called exothermic reaction. All combustion reaction are
division of the Department of Economic Affairs in the
exothermic reaction. Respiration is an exothermic
Finance Ministry under guidance of the Chief Economic
process, because heat energy is produced during this
Advisor and released after the approval of Finance
process. It is important that photosynthesis is an
Minister. Economic survey was first presented in 1950-
endothermic reaction.
51.
58.(c)
51. (d)
Radiocarbon dating technique is used to determine the
Fiscal policy is an estimate of taxation and government age of fossils (organic materials). It is also known as
spending that impacts the economy. Three types of carbon-14 dating.
fiscal policy–
59. (d)
Neutral Policy
Amylase enzyme is present in all members of the animals
Expansionary Policy –Govt. spends more money than except protozoa. Digestion in protozoa is carried on by
it collects through taxes. several enzymes such as peptidase, proteinase, lipase etc.
Contractionary Policy–Govt. collects more money For example, insulin has important role in the glucose
through taxes than it spends. uptake of protozoa. However, protozoa lacks of amylase
52. (c) which is required for the digestion of starch. It is due to the
Expenditure such as investment expenditure incurred absence of amylase that protozoa such as amoeba cannot
for the creation of new capital assets like machinery, digest fats and starch.
tools, buildings. Capital expenditure are done by 60. (b)
company to upgrade their tools, technology, equipments Basophils are the type of the white blood cell which
etc. Revenue expenditure is that whose benefit is contain granulated cytoplasm. The granules in the
received at the same period. Production expenditure is cytoplasm contain the molecules histamine, heparin and
the total expenses incurred in production. serotonin which are released during the allergic
53.(d) reactions. Heparin is the anticoagulant, histamine is
Reserve Bank of India has recently launched 'Sachet' allergic agent and serotonin affects the motor activities.
portal to curb illegal and unauthorized pooling of funds 61. (c)
by unscrupulous firms. This portal will help people to Hibernation is a state of reduced metabolic activity
obtain information about entities allowed to collect during winter season among some animals like snake,
deposits. The portal will facilitate filing tracking of polar bear,frog and tortoise etc. Hibernation is a state of
complaints, besides providing information about inactivity in which an animal’s heart rate, body
whether any particular entity is registered with any temperature, and breathing rate are decreased in order to
regulator or is permitted to accept deposits. conserve energy through the cold months of winter. A
54. (b) similar state, known as aestivation, occurs in some desert
The place where organisms live is called habitat. animals during the dry months of summer. Hibernators go
Habitat means a dwelling place (a home). The habitat into such a deep sleep that it is almost impossible to wake
provides food, water, air, shelter and other needs to them, and they appear to be dead. Hibernating animals get
organisms. The organisms, both plants and animals, ready for their winter sleep by eating extra food and storing
living in a habitat are its biotic components. The non- it as body fat which they then use as energy while sleeping.
living things such as rocks, soil, air, heat and water in When climate moves to change, they awake gradually and
the habitat constitute its abiotic components. enter in atmosphere.
Practice Set-2 124 YCT
62. (b) 72. (c)
Crown gall is caused by the bacterial plant pathogen, A computer virus is a programme that can duplicate using
Agrobacterium tumefaciens. Crown gall bacteria enter plant its location and infect a computer without the user's
roots through wounds. Wounds may have been created by permission. Spawn is used in computer viruses to replicate
planting, grafting, soil insect feeding, root damage from itself. A virus can spread from one computer to another
excavation or other form of physical damage. only if its host it brought from an unaffected computer.
63. (b) 73. (d)
Majority of the fungal bionts of lichens belong to class Database Management System (DBMS) is a software
Ascomycetes or Basidiomycetes. Lichens are a complex life
designed to manage and efficiently use data. It is mainly
form that is a symbiotic partnership of two separate
organisms, a fungus and an algal. The dominant partner is used for data analysis, creation, query, permission and
the fungus, which gives the lichen the majority of its administration of database and for obtaining data. A
characteristics, from its thallus shape to its fruiting bodies. database is not usually portable in different DBMS but
Generally, algal bionts of lichens belong to class Trebouxia, XQL and ODBC to work with more than one database
Pseudobouxia and Myrmecia. Lichens are well known as in different database management mechanisms are use
sensitive indicators of air pollution, particularly for sulfur standards such as JDBC. Oracle, Sybase, MySQL,
dioxide. The micro quantity of SO2 influences growth of CSQL, Firebird, Microsoft Access, SAPHANA etc. are
lichens. Lichens get extinct from polluted areas. database management systems.
64. (d) 74. (c)
Diphtheria is a disease caused by Corynebacterium Immediate Payment Service (IMPS) is an instant
diphtheriae, bacteria which infects nose and throat. DPT electronic fund transfer service through a mobile phone.
vaccine is given for prevention of diphtheria, pertussis It is a type of internet banking. It was started on
and tetanus. November 22, 2010 and is being run by the National
65. (b) Payment Corporation of India (NPCI).
Adrenaline hormone is known as the emergency 75. (c)
hormone. It is secreted by medulla of adrenal gland. Forensic science is the application of sciences such as
When there is any emergency situation such as fear, physics, chemistry , biology, computer science and
stress; it is secreted into the blood. Other hormones such engineering to matters of law and to the identification of
as progesterone, estrogen and testosterone are
various facts of civilian investigation. Forensic science is
reproductive hormone.
also called as criminalistics. It is a science which aims to
66. (a)
use scientific method to investigate or examine the
38 ATP molecules can be made per oxidized glucose
evidences of a crime scene so that it may be presented in
molecule during cellular respiration (2 from glycolysis,
2 from the Krebs cycle and about 34 from the electron the court of law.
transport system (ETS)). Cellular respiration takes place 76. (b)
in the cytoplasm and partially in the mitochondria. ATP Amortization is the process of recording the decrease in
produced in glycolysis = 6 + 24 + 4 + 2 + 2 = 38 ATP. value of intangible assets like patents, copyright, and
67. (b) goodwill.
Phloem, also called vascular tissue in plants that 77. (a)
conduct food made in the leaves to all other parts of the Leasehold property is generally depreciated by Annuity
plant. Phloem is present in leaves, stem and root. By the Method. Under this method, depreciation is computed by
phloem, sugar is transported in tissue as non reducing considering the cost of asset and the interest on the actual
sugar. The term was introduced by Carl Nageli in 1858. cost of the asset that the business would have earned if
68. (d) the amount have been invested in some investment.
Lysosomes are involved with various cell processes. 78. (b)
They break down excess or worn out cell parts. They Adjusted net profit is 200000 capital employed is
may used to destroy the invading/external material, 12,50,000
viruses and bacteria for keeping the cell clean.
Lysosomes are known to contain more than 60 different 12,50,000 ×10
Simple profit = = 1,25,000
enzymes. It was discovered by De Duve. 100
69. (a) Super profit = 2,00,000 – 1,25,000 = 75,000
In a computer system files are put together in folder that Goodwill = super profit × No. of year of purchase
can be renamed as per convenience. This help in
= 75,000 × 3 = 2,25,000 `
organisation of the files in a proper manner.
70. (b) 79. (a)
The taskbar is placed at the bottom of the desktop screen. It Interest on capital is to be calculated on the capitals at
includes (from left to the right) the start menu button, the beginning for the relevant period.
quick Launch bar, taskbar buttons & notification area. 80. (a)
71. (a) Charter party is a document issued by the shipping
Malware is the short form of 'Malicious software'. It is company. It is issued when the owner of a ship lets the
designed to destroy computers and computer softwares. whole or principal part to another person for the
Examples- Ransomware, Spyware etc. conveyance of goods on a particular voyage.
Practice Set-2 125 YCT
81. (b) 93. (c)
Induction is the training given to employees to Shipping Bill is a document, required for customs clearance.
familiarize them with the policies, goals and facilities of The exporter has to fill Bill in triplicate where the first copy
the company. held with company, second copy is held with shipping
82. (d) company and third copy is held by government.
Share premium money can not be utilized in paying cash 94. (d)
dividend to shareholders. According to section 52 of the The journal entry will be:
companies Act Securities premium can be used for Purchases A/c Dr. 5000
issuing bonus share, writing off preliminary expenses or To cash A/c Cr. 5000
writing of discount on issue of debenture. 95. (d)
83. (b) Double entry system was propounded by Luca Pacioli.
According to section 11 of the companies Act, 1956. The He is called 'The Father of Accounting'. He published the
maximum number of partners in a partnership firm must book 'suma de Arithmetica, Geometrica, proportioniet
not exceed 20. proportionalita in venice in 1494.
84. (c) 96. (a)
Reinstatement - Marine Insurance policy is not correctly Depreciation is a continuous, permanent and gradual
matched pair. decrease in the book value of fixed assets. Fixed assets
85. (b) are subject to depreciation because they are utilized or
Primage is included in shipping freight. consumed by the business during their useful life in its
86. (c) operations.
Net sales is 2,00,000 debtors is 40,000 97. (d)
Debtors In case of J and J Dechane Vs State of Kerala the
Debtor's collection period = ×365 Supreme Court held that medical representative is not
Net sales workman.
40, 000 98. (b)
= ×365 = 73 days
2,00, 000 In case of Management of willcox Buckwell Vs
87. (a) Jagannath and ors. the court reiterated the well-known
Return outward book makes a record of Goods returned legal position that even a temporary worker can claim
to the supplier's. retrenchment compensation, if he is covered by the
88. (c) provisions of section 25F of the Industrial Disputes Act.
1947.
Cost of goods sold = Opening Stock + Purchases +
Direct expenses – closing stock 99. (c)
C.O.G.S. = 10000 + 90000 – 28000 = 72000 The National Commission on Labour 2002, recommends
that "works committee under the Industrial disputes Act
72000 should be substituted by an "Industrial relations
×100 = 80000
90 committee" to promote in-house dispute settlement."
Sale value = 80000 100. (d)
Sale value = 80000 International labour organization is an agency of United
89. (b) Nations. It was established in 1919 to promote social and
Money measurement concept states that during the economic justice through setting up of international
recording of any financial transactions, those transactions labour standards. It headquarters is in Geneva,
should not be recorded which cannot be expressed in Switzerland It has 187 member states.
terms of monetary value. Here in the above option (b) 101. (b)
commission payable to salesman can be expressed in L.C.M of 6 and 7· 42
terms of monetary value so, it will be recorded in the A is the smallest three digit number divisible by 42
books of accounts.
90. (c) ∴ A = 42 × 3
Prepaid insurance account is an asset. It is the portion of A = 126
an insurance premium that has been paid in advance and Largest 4 digit number divisible by B = 9999 – 3
has not expired as of the balance sheet date.
9999
91. (a) B = 9996 Q remainder = 3
The first factories Act enacted in the year 1881. Under 42
the administration of Lord Ripon. This Act aimed to Then, B – A = 9996 –126 = 9870
improve the working conditions of Labour. It prohibits 102. (a)
the employment of children under age of seven years. 1 1
92. (d) =
17 +12 2 9 + 8 + 2× 3× 2 2
According to Need-hierarchy theory of Maslow, the
levels of need hierarchy are five i.e. physiological needs, 1 1
safety needs, Belongingness & love needs, esteem needs = =
(3 + 2 2) 2 3+2 2
and self-actualization.
Practice Set-2 126 YCT
3-2 2 [Loss = CP – SP]
= = 20000 – 19950 = 50
(3 + 2 2)(3 – 2 2)
Loss · `50
3 − 2×1.414 3 − 2.828 107. (c)
= 2 = = 0.17
3 − (2 2) 2 9−8 Let the speed of the train = x km/h
103. (a) Speed of train B = y km/h
Average of 41 consecutive odd numbers=49 416 416 8
− = .........(1)
Sum of 41 numbers = 41 × 49 = 2009 x y 3
a = ?, d = 2, n = 41 416 416 4
n Again − = ........(2)
Sn = [ 2a + (n − 1)d ] y 2x 3
2 From equation (1) + (2)
41
2009 = [ 2a + (41 − 1)2] 416 416
− =4
2 x 2x
2009 × 2
= [ 2a + 80 ] 416
=4
41 2x
2a = 18 x = 52 km/h
a=9 108. (c)
∴ l = a + (n–1)d Let the speed of the boat in downstream be x km/hr and
= 9 + (41–1)2 = 9 +80 = 89 speed of boat in upstream be y km/hr. According to the
104. (c) question,
Let B has ` x, 7.2 3.2
+ =2
A = x + 500 and C = (x+500)+300 x y
According to the question, 7.2y + 3.2x = 2xy
x + 500 + x + (x + 500) + 300 = 8,200 72y + 32x = 20xy ............(i)
3x + 1300 = 8200
1.5 0.6 24
3x = 6900 + =
x = 2300 x y 60
Hence, share of C = 2300 + 800 = `3100 24
1.5y + 0.6x = xy
105. (c) 60
Let, number of registered voters = x 240
15y + 6x = xy
According to the question, 60
Winner = 60% 15y + 6x = 4xy ............(ii)
Losser = 40% Multiplying by 5 in equation (ii),
95 90 60 40 75y + 30x = 20xy
∴x× × × − = 17271
100 100 100 100 Hence 72y + 32x = 75y + 30x
95 90 20 2
⇒ x× × × = 17271 −3y = −2x ⇒ y = x
100 100 100 3
95 9 1 Putting the value of y in equation (i)
⇒ x× × × = 17271
100 10 5 2 2
909 × 1000 72 × x + 32x = 20x × x
⇒x= 3 3
9 40x 2
∴x = 101000 48x + 32x =
3
Hence, option (c) is correct. 2
40x
106. (a) 80x =
If the selling price of the two articles is the same then 3
x2 80 × 3
man will always suffer a loss of % x= = 6km / hr
100 40
109. (c)
52
Loss% · = 0.25% The required number of workers = 4+15+10+10 = 39
100 110. (a)
100 According to the question,
Total Cost Price · × (2 × 9975) = `20000
99.75 Area of circular park = 12474 m2 (given)
Total Selling Price · 2×9975 = `19950 ⇒ πr2 = 12474
Practice Set-2 127 YCT
7 115. (a)
⇒ ⇒ r 2 = 12474 × In the given alternative, it is clear from the meaning of
22
the words increase, enhance and raise that they are
⇒ r2 = 81 × 49
synonymous with each other whereas reduce is the
⇒r=9×7 opposite word of all the them. Hence option (a) will be
r = 63 m inconsistent.
New radius with the width of the park (R) = 63m + 3.5 116. (a)
m Given that :
= 66.5 m
From Column I,
∴ Area of the path = Area of the park with path–Area
(5)1 + (6)2 + (7)3 = 5 + 36 + 343
of the park
= 384
= πR2 – πr2
Again, from Column II,
22 (4)1 + (5)2 + (6)3 = 4 + 25 + 216
= × 66.5 × 66.5 − 12474
7 = 245
= 13898.5 – 12474 = 1424.5 m2 Same as,
111. (b) From Column III.
Volume of hemispherical bowl (3)1 + (4)2 + (5)3 = 3 + 16 + 125 = 144
Number of bottles =
Volume of cylinderical bottles 117. (b)
The Venn diagram showing the most appropriate
2 3 2
πr1 × 18 × 18 × 18 relationship among the given set of classes is as
18 × 18 × 18
=3 2 =3 = = 36 follows-
πr2 h 12 × 3 × 3 6×9×3
112. (c)
Prose and poetry comes under Hindi literature.
118. (a)
As Cow is a national animal of Nepal likewise Tiger is a
national animal of India.
119. (c)
Given series is –
43.2 % → 432
1% → 10 126, 217, 344, 513
100% → 1000 ↓ ↓ ↓ ↓
Note– the commission has considered option (b) is ( 53 + 1) ( 63 + 1) ( 73 + 1) (83 + 1)
correct.
⇒ ? · 513
113. (a)
According to the given statement 120.(d)
the blood relation diagram is as follows Class 1–10 10–20 20–30 30–40 40–50 50–60
interval
frequency 3 16 (26) F0 (31) F1 (16) F2 8
Most frequency class is (30-40)
So mode category(30-40)
∴ L1 = 30, L2 = 40
F1 = 31, F2 = 16, F0 = 26
(L 2 − L1 )(F1 − F0 )
formula– Mode = L1 +
2F1 − F0 − F2
Hence it is clear from the above that Monica is Phoebe's
grand daughter. (40 − 30)(31 − 26)
Mode = 30 +
114. (a) 2 × 31 − 26 − 16
Given, P → +, Q → −, R → x, S → ÷ 50
Mode = 30 +
2 1 2 1 20
S Q7P7 R 5 = ÷ − 7 + 7×5
3 3 3 3 Mode = 30 + 2.5
= 2 − 7 + 35 = 30 Mode = 32.5
Practice Set-2 128 YCT
PRACTICE SET-3
1. The following sentence has been divided into 10. Select the most appropriate meaning of the
parts. One of them contains an error. Select the given idiom.
part that contains the error from the given Couch potato
options. (a) a person who sleeps all day
The Committee agreed/that small businesses/ (b) a person who watches too much television
has been adversely affected/ by COVID-19. (c) a person who remains relaxed and calm
(a) has been adversely affected (d) a person who is simple in nature
(b) the Committee agreed 11. Select the most appropriate meaning of the
(c) by COVID-19 given idiom.
(d) that small businesses Lead someone by the nose
2. Identify the segment in the sentence which (a) to do the right thing
contains a grammatical error. (b) to force someone to take the blame
I didn't knew you had gone to Goa for a (c) to dominate someone
vacation.
(d) to quarrel with someone
(a) you had gone (b) to Goa
12. In the sentence identify the segment which
(c) I didn't knew (d) for a vacation contains the grammatical error.
3. Select the most appropriate word to fill in the That man would have attacked you, if you went
blank. that way.
We respect you but we don’t agree ______ your (a) That man would have (b) that way
ideas. (c) if you went (d) attacked you
(a) to (b) for 13. Identify the segment in the sentence, which
(c) by (d) with contains the grammatical error.
4. Select the most appropriate option to fill in the "Unless you did not do your homework you
blank. will be punished," said the teacher.
Please sign these documents ––––ink so that (a) do your homework
they can be preserved. (b) unless you did not
(a) with (b) in (c) said the teacher
(c) from (d) by (d) you will be punished
5. Select the synonym of the given word. 14. Select the most appropriate word to fill in the
COERCE blank.
(a) pressurize (b) cajole If you_____ your book, I'd like to borrow it.
(c) leave (d) enchant (a) finish (b) finished
6. Select the most appropriate synonym of the (c) will finish (d) have finished
given word. 15. Select the most appropriate option to fill in the
MAGNIFY blank and make a grammatically correct
(a) enlarge (b) withdraw sentence.
If I ––––– that you were coming over, I would
(c) shrink (d) decrease
have cancelled my programme.
7. Select the most appropriate ANTONYM of the (a) know (b) knows
given word.
(c) had known (d) am knowing
CULPABLE 16. Select the synonym of the given word.
(a) offensive (b) innocent HANDY
(c) reserved (d) disagreeable (a) Convenient (b) Easy
8. Select the most appropriate ANTONYM of the (c) Funny (d) Nice
given word. 17. Select the most appropriate synonym of the
METROPOLITAN given word.
(a) Provincial (b) Federal Robust
(c) Insular (d) National (a) fragile (b) healthy
9. Select the most appropriate one-word (c) incapable (d) delicable
substitution for the given words. 18. Select the most appropriate ANTONYM of the
The state of being married to one person at a given word.
time HARSH
(a) Bigamy (b) Homogamy (a) Energetic (b) Lenient
(c) Polygamy (d) Monogamy (c) Fragile (d) Robust
Practice Set-3 129 YCT
19. Select the most appropriate antonym of the 28. In 1918, Mahatma Gandhi did Satyagraha in
given word. Kheda district of Gujarat in support of whom?
Revel (a) For the cotton mill workers who were
(a) Mourn (b) Rejoice demanding better wages.
(c) Enjoy (d) Appreciate (b) The tribal's whose customary rights were
20. Select the word which means the same as the being welted.
group of words given. (c) For women who were fighting against the
Things which are of the same kind and of the oppressive patriarchal system.
same dimensions. (d) For those farmers who were affected by crop
(a) Homogenous (b) Homophony failure and epidemics.
(c) Homosexual (d) Homonymous 29. Which of the following revolutionaries was
21. Identify the Indian state which was known as arrested by the British as an accused in the
'Pragjyotisha' during the epic period. Alipore Bomb Conspiracy Case?
(a) Assam (b) Odisha (a) Kanailal Dutta
(c) Kerala (d) Bihar (b) Rajendra Lahiri
22. Which of the following Sufi order was the most (c) Roshan Singh
orthodox ? (d) Ashfaq Ullah Khan
(a) Chishti (b) Qadiri 30. Who among the following was the President of
(c) Sarwari Qadri (d) Naqshbandi the Central Legislative Assembly in August
23. In which year Sanchi was discovered after 1925?
being abandoned for nearly 600 years ? (a) C. R. Das (b) Motilal Nehru
(a) 1818 (b) 1814 (c) M.R. Jayakar (d) Vitthalbhai Patel
(c) 1816 (d) 1817 31. Azad Hind was an Indian provisional
24. Lord Hastings intiated the ____where the East government established in …….in 1943.
India Company claimed that its authority was (a) Australia (b) Sri Lanka
supreme and hence its power was greater than (c) Singapore (d) Bangladesh
that of Indian states. 32. Article 42 of the Indian Constitution
(a) Doctrine of Lapse "Provision for just and humane conditions of
(b) Policy of 'Paramountcy' work and maternity relief" deals with?
(c) Government's Strores policy (a) the Union Government
(d) Imperial policy (b) the State Government
25. Who among the following participated in the (c) the Fundamental Rights of the Indian Citizen
Salt Satyagarha of Gandhiji? (d) the Directive Principles of State Policy
(a) Sarojini Naidu 33. Which article of Indian Constitution deals with
(b) Rajkumari Amrit Kaur discrimination against any Indian citizen on
(c) Kamladevi Chattopadhyaya various grounds?
(d) All options are correct (a) Article 11 (b) Article 19
26. With reference to India's freedom struggle (c) Article 13 (d) Article 15
consider the following statements : 34. Article 39A of the Indian Constitution “equal
1. The socialist activist Kamaladevi justice and free legal aid” deals with?
Chattopadhyay had persuaded Gandhiji not to (a) the State Government
restrict the protests to men alone (b) the Directive Principles of State Policy
2. The first meeting of the "Round Table (c) the Union Government
Conferences" was held in November 1930 in (d) the Fundamental Rights of the Indian Citizen
Munbai 35. The President of India has the power to pardon
3. Viceroy Lord Willingdon was sympathetic to under which article of the Constitution of India?
Mahatma Gandhi (a) Article 63 (b) Article 72
Which of the statements given above is/are (c) Article 52 (d) Article 86
correct? 36. The minimum number of members that must
(a) 1 and 3 only (b) 2 and 3 only be present to hold the meeting of the Lok
(c) 1 only (d) 1, 2 and 3 Sabha is
27. Who among the following was one of the (a) One-fourth of the total membership
leaders of the Santhal rebellion? (b) One-tenth of the total membership
(a) Sidhu Manjhi (b) BR Ambedkar (c) Fifty percent strength of the Lok Sabha
(c) Surya Sen (d) Swami Vivekanand (d) At least hundred members
Practice Set-3 130 YCT
37. If a budget is defeated in the legislature of a (c) Products which are cost effective
state then. (d) Products which are free of adulteration
(a) The Finance Minister alone has to resign 45. In the context of demographic history of India,
(b) The Finance Minister concerned has to be which of the following years is known as the
suspended 'Year of Great Divide'?
(c) The Council of Ministers along with the (a) 1921 (b) 1931
Chief Minister has to resign (c) 1911 (d) 1947
(d) Re-election has to be ordered 46. Redistribution of income in a country can be
38. Which article of the Constitution of India states brought about through
that 'all authorities, civil and judicial, in the (a) Progressive taxation combined with
territory of India shall act in aid of the progressive expenditure
Supreme Court'?
(b) Progressive taxation combined with
(a) Article 121 (b) Article 137
regressive expenditure
(c) Article 157 (d) Article 144
(c) Regressive taxation combined with
39. Who among the following is not a part of the regressive expenditure
committee, which is constructed to provide
suggestions to the Prime Minister regarding the (d) Regressive taxation combined with
appointment of a chief commissioner of Central progressive expenditure
Information Commission? 47. Which of the following is not an assumption of
(a) Speaker of the Lok Sabha perfect competition?
(b) A Union Cabinet Minister appointed by (a) There are many buyers and sellers
Prime Minister (b) Average total costs continually decrease.
(c) Leader of Opposition in Lok Sabha (c) The good sold by all sellers in the market is
(d) Prime Minister assumed to be homogeneous.
40. Which of the following Amendment Acts of the (d) Buyers and sellers in the market are assumed to
Constitution of India abolished the privy have perfect information.
purses and privileges of former rulers of 48. Which of the following ministries implemented
princely states? the Midday Meal scheme?
(a) 25th Amendment Act 1971 (a) Ministry of Human Resource Development
(b) 26th Amendment Act 1971 (b) Ministry of Social Justice and Empowerment
(c) 28th Amendment Act 1972 (c) Ministry of Social Welfare
(d) 27th Amendment Act 1971 (d) Ministry of Home Affairs
41. By which amendment of the Constitution of 49. Which of the following organizations promotes
India were the terms 'Socialist' and 'Secular' sustainable managements and conservation of
added in the preamble? tropical forests?
(a) Constitution (Forty-First Amendment) Act, (a) Wildlife fund for nature
1976 (b) International Tropical Timber Organization
(b) Constitution (Forty-Third Amendment) Act, (c) Green Peace
1977
(d) United Nations Forum on forests
(c) Constitution (Forty-Fourth Amendment) Act,
1978 50. Who among the following launches economic
(d) Constitution (Forty-Second Amendment) Act, survey of India, every year?
1976 (a) RBI
42. A mass of snow and ice that moves slowly (b) NITI Aayog
under the influence of gravity along a confined (c) Finance Ministry
course away from its place of accumulation is (d) Ministry of Commerce
called a ............. 51. What is the concept of globalization in Indian
(a) lagoon (b) glacier economy?
(c) block mountain (d) plateau (a) Increment in external debt.
43. Realising the importance of maintaining the (b) Having minimum intervention in economic
cleanliness of the water bodies, the relations with other countries
Government of India passed the Water (c) starting new trade on foreign land.
(Prevention and Control of Pollution) Act,
________, to safeguard our water resources. (d) Plannings for easy import and exports.
(a) 1974 (b) 1973 52. Commodity or product differentiation is found
(c) 1971 (d) 1969 in which market?
44. Which Indian products are issued with eco- (a) Perfect competition Market
mark? (b) Monopoly Market
(a) Product which are environment-friendly (c) Imperfect Competition Market
(b) Products which are not biodegradable (d) No option is correct
Practice Set-3 131 YCT
53. AMRUT scheme was launched under the 63. The term 'Mutation' mainly refers to ___.
sanitation programme in 2015. What is the full (a) Genetic migration
form of AMRUT? (b) Genetic line
(a) Aqua Mission for Renewable and Ultra (c) Genetic improvement
Transformation (d) Genetic mistake
(b) Atal Mission for Rejuvenation and Urban 64. The outermost layer of skin is
Transformation (a) Epidermis (b) Dermis
(c) Amar Mission for Renewable and Ultra (c) Tissues (d) Hypodermis
Transmission
65. Which of the following organs are NOT parts
(d) Aqua Mission for Rejuvenation and Urban of the Alimentary canal?
Transmission (a) Colon and rectum
54. If the vector sum of torques acting on a system (b) Buccal cavity and Oesophagus
is zero, then the object is in ………
(c) Liver and pancreas
(a) static equilibrium
(d) Stomach and intestine
(b) translatory equilibrium
66. Which of the following is not connective tissue?
(c) linear equilibrium
(a) Bone (b) Cartilage
(d) rotational equilibrium
(c) Blood (d) Skeletal muscle
55. A thermodynamic process during which the
volume of the closed system in consideration 67. Which one of the following substances is
remains constant is called ............... normally found in urine?
(a) Isochoric process (b) Isobaric process (a) Blood proteins (b) Creatinine
(c) Adiabatic process (d) Isothermal process (c) red blood cells (d) White blood cells
56. Two vectors are said to be equal if 68. Which of the following disease is caused due to
the deficiency of protein?
(a) only their magnitudes are same
(a) Arthritis (b) Kwashiorkor
(b) only their directions are same
(c) Goitre (d) Night Blindness
(c) both magnitude and direction are same
69. In information and communication technology,
(d) magnitudes are same but directions are
what is the full form of FDD?
opposite
(a) Folder Disk Drive (b) Floppy Disk Drive
57. Which of the following acids is found in ant sting?
(c) Folder Data Drive (d) Floppy Data Drive
(a) Methanoic acid (b) Tartaric acid
70. Two versions of the Internet Protocol (IP) are
(c) Oxalic acid (d) Acetic acid
in use-
58. Which among the following will be a negative (a) IP Version 4 & IP Version 6
ion?
(b) IP Version 2 & IP Version 3
(a) If it has more electrons than protons
(c) IP Version 4 & IP Version 8
(b) If it has more electrons than neutrons
(d) IP Version 2 & IP Version 4
(c) If it has more protons than electrons
71. What are the list of coded instructions called
(d) If it has more protons than neutrons
(a) Algorithm
59. The presence of air bubble in blood stream is
(b) Computer Language
dangerous to life because
(a) Air combines with blood forming a complex (c) Computer Programme
(b) The flow of blood increases manifold (d) None of These
(c) The flow of blood is obstructed 72. Related to computers, what is 'Wetware'?
(d) The pressure of blood increases manifold (a) Computer programme
(b) Circuitory
60. In which part of the excretory system of human
(c) Human brain
body is it stored before passing urine ?
(d) Chemical; Storage device
(a) Ureter (b) Bowman's capsule
73. The transfer of data from one application to
(c) Urethra (d) Bladder
another in a computer system is known as
61. Who is regarded as the father of microbiology? (a) Dynamic Data Exchange
He is also known for the discovery of bacteria.
(b) Dodgy Data Exchange
(a) Jonas E. Salk
(c) Dogmatic Data Exchange
(b) Dmitri Mendeleev
(d) Dynamic Disk Exchange
(c) Antonie Van Leeuwenhoek
(d) Joseph Priestley 74. Which of the following statement is true?
62. Evaporation of water takes place in which part (a) A Primary key is also a candidate key
of plants? (b) Each relation has at least one foreign key
(a) Stem (b) Stomata (c) Foreign keys can't have null values
(c) Branch (d) Fruit (d) A Primary key is also an alternate key
Practice Set-3 132 YCT
75. Which of the following countries have signed 84. hich of the following is an implied warranty in
IBSA trust fund agreement in October 2017? a marine insurance?
(a) India, Brazil, USA (a) Legality of adventure
(b) India, Britain, South Africa (b) Good faith
(c) Indonesia, Britain, USA (c) Insurable interest
(d) India, Brazil, South Africa (d) Indemnity
76. In case of insolvency of a partner, any balance 85. He principle of indemnity applies to:
in Reserve Fund or Profit and Loss A/c is (a) Fire insurance (b) Marine insurance
distributed in all partners (c) Crop insurance (d) all the three
(a) equally 86. Which of the following is correct about 'Margin
(b) in profit sharing ratio of Safety Ratio'?
(c) in the ratio of their capital Capital employed Contribution
(a) (b)
(d) none of the above Net worth Sales Voume
77. A company may issue, at a discount share in Operating Profit Contribution
the company of a class already issued if : (c) (d)
Contribution Sales at B.E.P
(a) It is authorised by a resolution passed at the
General Meeting and approved by the 87. Which of the following is a revenue
Company Law Board expenditure?
(b) At least one year has elapsed since the receipt (a) Repair's on purchases of second hand asset to
put in to working condition
of the certificate to commence business
(b) Preliminary expenses
(c) The particulars of the discount allowed on the
(c) Cost of issuing share and debentures
issue of shares are clearly mentioned in the
prospectus issued (d) legal expenses to defend a suit field by the
competitor
(d) All the above conditions are
88. Which of the following should be shown on the
78. The term Amortisation is genetally used to assets side of the Balance sheet :
indicate the fall in value of the following: (a) Prepaid rent (b) Share premium
(a) Tangible fixed assets (c) Outstanding wages (d) Outstanding salary
(b) Intangible fixed assets 89. For the purpose of final accounts, stock is
(c) Current assets normally valued according to :
(d) Quick assets (a) Cost or market value whichever is lower
79. Capital employed in a business is Rs. 1,50,000. (b) Market value
Profits are Rs. 50,000 and the normal rate of (c) Replacement cost
profit is 20%. The amount of goodwill by (d) Net realisable value
capitalisation method will be 90. Rationalisation includes.
(a) Rs. 1,00,000 (b) Rs. 1,50,000 (a) Rational use of money only
(c) Rs. 2,00,000 (d) Rs. 3,00,000 (b) Scientific management
80. The order for import of goods is called : (c) Project management
(a) Indent (b) Import Order (d) Social responsibility
(c) Bill of Lading (d) Letter of Credit 91. X and Y theory of motivation was propounded
81. Which one of the following tests is not a by :
Personality test method? (a) Vroom (b) Urveick
(a) Ink-Blot Test (c) MC Gregor (d) Maslow
(b) Sentence-Completion Tests 92. Balance sheet depicts
(c) Thematic Apperception Test (a) Only the asset position
(d) Performance Test (b) Only the liability position
82. The principle of subrogation applies to (c) Cash position
(a) all types of insurance (d) Financial position
93. Match list I with list II and select your Answer
(b) only fire insurance
using the code given below :
(c) only marine insurance list I list II
(d) fire and marine insurance both A. Cash 1. Equity Share
83. Consumers Cooperative store is setup by : capital
(a) Central Government B. Profit 2. Fixes Asset capital
(b) State Government C. Discount on issue 3. Fictitious
(c) Registrar of Cooperative societies of share
(d) Members D. Machinery of plant/ 4. Current Asset
Practice Set-3 133 YCT
Code: 100. As per minimum wages Act 1948 who is
A B C D required to maintain register's and recorded
(a) 1 3 4 2 (a) Chartered Accountant
(b) 4 1 3 2 (b) Company Secretary
(c) Employer
(c) 4 3 2 1
(d) all of above
(d) 2 3 1 4
101. If N = 314 + 313 – 12, then what is the largest
94. Proposed Divided is shown in the balance sheet
prime factor of N ?
of a 'Company under the head.
(a) 11 (b) 79
(a) Provisions
(c) 13 (d) 73
(b) Current liability
(c) Reserve and surplus 102. What is the value of 18 – 2 77
(d) Long-term liability (a) 11 + 7 (b) 12 – 5
95. Original cost of an Asset is Rs. 5700 Scrap
(c) 11 – 7 (d) 13 – 4
value Rs. 2000 and estimated life 10 year what
will be the amount of depreciation in the first 103. The average weight of some students in a class
year according to the sum of they years digits was 69.5 kg. When 10 students of average
weight 68 kg joined the class, and 6 students of
Methods :
average weight 60 kg left the class, it was noted
(a) ` 10000 (b) ` 5900 that the average weight of the new group of
(c) ` 5700 (d) ` 5500 students increased by 2 kg. How many students
96. Which one of the following statement is true? are there in the class now?
(a) The general funds of a registered trade union (a) 17 (b) 21
shall not be spent on the payment of salaries (c) 23 (d) 19
(b) A registered Trade union may constitue a 104. Atul purchased bread costing `20 and gave a
separate found for the promotion of the civic 100 rupee note to the shopkeeper. The
and political interests shopkeeper gave the balance money in coins of
(c) No appeal lies against the order of refusal of denomination `2, `5 and `10. If these coins are
the Registrar to register a Trade union in the ratio 5 : 4 : 1, then how many `5 coins
(d) Every registered Trade Union shall not be a did the shopkeeper give ?
body corporate (a) 6 (b) 5
(c) 4 (d) 8
97. Who is a protected workman under the
Industrial Disputes Act? Answer from the 105. The monthly salary of a person was `50,000.
codes given below: He used to spend on Family expenses (E),
Taxes (T), Charity (C), and the rest were his
1. A workman who is a member of a savings. E was 60% of the income, T was 20%
registered Trade Union of E, and C was 15% of T. When his salary got
2. Recognised by the Registrar of the Trade raised by 40%, he maintained the percentage
Union as protected workman level of E, but T becomes 30% of E and C
3. A workman who is a member of the becomes 20% of T. The difference between the
Executive or other office bearer of a two savings (in `) is:
registered Trade Union connected with the (a) 128 (b) 220
establishment (c) 130 (d) 250
4. Recognised as protected workman under 106. Abhi bought two articles for `624. He sold one
the rules applicable to the establishment at a loss of 14% and the other at a profit of
Codes: 14%, If the selling price of both the articles is
(a) 1 and 2 (b) 2 and 4 equal, then the difference between their cost
(c) 3 and 4 (d) 1 and 3 price (in `) is:
98. International Labour organization was (a) `87.36 (b) `89.68
formulated in (c) `89.64 (d) `88.84
(a) 1965 (b) 1939 107. The distance between two station, A and B is 575
(c) 1919 (d) 1929 km. A train starts from station 'A' at 3:00 p.m.
and moves towards station 'B' at an average
99. The turn 'wages' for the purpose of minimum
speed of 50 km/h. Another train starts from
wage's Act 1948 does not Includes station 'B' at 3:30 p.m. and moves towards
(a) HRA station 'A' at an average speed of 60 km/h. How
(b) Traviling allowance far from station 'A' will the trains meet?
(c) Provident Fund (PF) (a) 275 km (b) 225 km
(d) all the above (c) 300 km (d) 325 km
Practice Set-3 134 YCT
108. In a stream running at 3 km/h, a motorboat (a) Conclusion drawn is definitely false
goes 12 km upstream and back to the starting (b) Conclusion drawn is probably true
point in 60 min. Find the speed of the (c) Conclusion drawn is definitely true
motorboat in still water. (in km/h) (d) Conclusion cannot be drawn
(
(a) 2 2 + 17 ) (
(b) 2 4 + 15 ) 115. In a class of 46 students, 18 play carrom; 17
play chess, including 6 who play carrom; 16
(
(c) 3 2 + 17 ) (
(d) 3 4 + 17 ) play cards, including 4 who play chess, but not
carrom and 5 play only tennis. Which of the
109. Students of Primary, Middle, Secondary and
following figures represents these facts?
Sr. Secondary classes collected donation for a
Relief Fund as shown in the pie chart. If the
donation collected from Middle classes was `
6,750, then how much money was collected by
the Primary Classes?
(a) D (b) B
(c) A (d) C
(a) ` 4,050 (b) ` 4,005 116. Dropu walked 4 m from points A towards the
south-west and reached point B. Then she
(c) ` 4,500 (d) ` 3,960
turned south-east and walked distance to reach
110. What is the area (in cm2) of a circle inscribed point C, and then she turned towards the
22 north-east and walked 4 to reach Point D.
in a square of area 784 cm2? Take π =
7 Which direction does she need to turn to move
(a) 660 (b) 616 towards Point B?
(c) 924 (d) 462 (a) North-west (b) East
111. A right circular cone of largest volume is cut (c) West (d) South-east
out from a solid wooden hemisphere. The 117. Using the sequence VWY9PONI5FSLUDTG61AJ
remaining material is what percentage of the find the missing term from the following series.
volume of the original hemisphere? YP, ..........., 5S, LD
(a) 75% (b) 33½% (a) PN (b) OI
(c) 50% (d) 66⅔% (c) N5 (d) OT
112. In how many months will Rs. 8,000 yield Rs. 118. Mohit has a son Rohit who is married to Gita.
2,648 as compound interest at 20% per annum Gita's husband's only brother Dev is the son of
compounded semi-annually? Babita. Babita and Jamita are sisters and the
(a) 18 months (b) 24 months only children of their parents. How is Babita
(c) 12 months (d) 30 months related to Gita?
113. How many such consonants are there in the (a) Mother (b) Husband's sister
following sequence, each of which is (c) Mother-in-law (d) Sister
immediately followed by a vowel but not 119. If ‘P’ means ‘subtract’ ‘Q’ means divide ‘R’
preceded by a number? means add and ‘S’ means multiply then the 15
TRB50%U7C4#KF$2UE*18I23V Q 3 R 24 P 12 S 2 value of ?
@9IX@ LAB (a) 7 (b) 5
(a) One (b) More than three (c) 29 (d) 9
(c) Two (d) Three 120. Details of number of people taking loans from
114. Read the given statements and decide if the bank based on their age group interval given
given conclusion is true, false or irrelevant with below Find the mode?
respect to the statements. age group 20 − 30 30 − 40 40 − 50 50 − 60 60 − 70
Statements :
No.of people 37 38 70 42 13
I. A is the sister of B.
II. B is the daughter of C. Find the mode.
Conclusion : (a) 45.33 (b) 44.89
B is the enemy of C. (c) 45.67 (d) 45.12
Practice Set-3 135 YCT
SOLUTION : PRACTICE SET- 3
ANSWER KEY
1. (a) 17. (b) 33. (d) 49. (b) 65.(c) 81. (d) 97. (c) 113. (a)
2. (c) 18. (b) 34.(b) 50. (c) 66.(d) 82. (d) 98. (c) 114. (d)
3. (d) 19. (a) 35. (b) 51. (b) 67. (b) 83. (c) 99. (d) 115. (a)
4. (b) 20. (a) 36. (b) 52. (c) 68. (b) 84. (a) 100. (c) 116. (c)
5. (a) 21. (a) 37. (c) 53. (b) 69. (b) 85. (d) 101. (d) 117. (b)
6. (a) 22. (d) 38. (d) 54. (d) 70.(a) 86. (d) 102. (c)
118. (c)
7. (b) 23. (a) 39. (a) 55. (a) 71. (c) 87. (d) 103. (b)
119. (b)
8. (a) 24. (b) 40. (b) 56. (c) 72. (c) 88. (a) 104. (d)
120. (a)
9. (d) 25. (d) 41. (d) 57. (a) 73. (a) 89. (a) 105. (b)
10. (b) 26. (c) 42. (b) 58. (a) 74. (a) 90. (b) 106. (a)
11. (c) 27. (a) 43. (a) 59. (c) 75. (d) 91. (c) 107. (a)
12.(c) 28. (d) 44. (a) 60. (d) 76. (b) 92. (d) 108. (d)
13. (b) 29. (a) 45. (a) 61. (c) 77. (d) 93. (b) 109. (a)
14.(d) 30. (d) 46. (a) 62. (b) 78. (b) 94. (a) 110. (b)
15. (c) 31. (c) 47. (b) 63. (d) 79. (a) 95. (a) 111. (c)
16. (a) 32. (d) 48. (a) 64. (a) 80. (a) 96. (b) 112. (a)
SOLUTION
1. (a) 5. (a)
In the above sentence, Have been adversely affected Coerce- to compel to an act or choice, Synonym-
will be used instead of has been adversely affected, 'pressurize meaning of other words:-
since the subject of the sentence is 'small businesses Cajole- To option form someone by gentle persuasion,
(plural). So 'verb' is also in plural form. sweet talk.
Correct Sentence - Enchant- To influence by or as if by charms and in
The Committee agreed that small businesses have been allure. Hence option (a) is correct answer.
adversely affected by Covid-19.
6. (a)
2. (c)
Magnify - To enlarge in fact or in appearance,
In the above sentence 'did' is a 'auxiliary verb' and
whenever 'did' used as 'Auxiliary Verb', main verb Synonym - enlarge
should be in Ist form. above sentence is in indefinite The meaning of other words:-
tense and sentence is in negative form so the structure Withdraw - To remove (money) from a place of
will be-(did not + VerbI) deposit, abnegate
Correct sentence- I didn't know you had gone to Goa Shrink - To lose substance or weight, lessen, relent.
for a vacation. 7. (b)
3. (d) Culpable - Blamable, antonym - innocent
'With' preposition is appropriate with 'Agree' other
The meaning of other words :-
option is not suitable.
offensive - giving painful or unpleasant sensation,
Note- (i) agree with someone or something.
abhorrent.
(ii) agree on a topic or subject.
8. (a)
(iii) agree to do something.
Correct sentence-We respect you but we don't agree Metroplitan- City slikcker, Antonym - Provincial a
with your ideas. person of local or restricted interests or outlook the
4. (b) meaning of other words.
In the above sentence 'In' will be used in the blank space Federal – of or constituting a form of government in
because 'in' preposition will be used with 'ink' which power is distributed between central authority
(write/sign in ⇒ ink) and a number of constituent territorial units.
Correct sentence- Please sign these documents in ink Insular–Characteristic of an isolated people, Lilliputian
so that they can be preserved. narrow-minded.
Practice Set-3 136 YCT
9. (d) 18. (b)
For given group of words 'The state of being married to Antonym of word 'harsh' is 'lenient' meaning of other
one person at a time' appropriate meaning will be words.
'Monogamy'. Other words are different in meaning. Energetic-Active, bouncing, spirited
Bigamy :- The act of entering into a marriage with one Robust–Potent, heady, concentrated
person while still legally married to another. 19. (a)
Polygamy - May have more than one mate at the same Antonym of word Revel is Mourn meaning of other
time. words is:
Homogamy - Marriage in same gender or sex. Rejoice - agree, content, delight
10. (b) Appreciate - apprehend, assimilate, cognize
The appropriate meaning of given idiom/phrase 'Couch 20. (a)
potato' is 'A person who watches to much television. One word for given group of word's Things which are of
The meaning of other words is incorrect for this idiom'. the same kind and of the same dimensions is
11. (c) Homogenous meaning of other words as :-
Given idiom/phrase 'Lead someone by the nose' means Homophony - Chordal
'To dominate someone' other options are incorrect. Homonymous -One of two or more words spelled and
12. (c) pronounced alike but different in meaning.
In the above sentence use 'if you had gone' in place of 'if 21. (a)
you went' because when there is a 'would have' in In the ancient sanskrit literature both the Pragjyotisha and
principle clause then 'had' (V3) is used in the Kamrupa were used as designation for ancient Assam. 1st
subordinate clause (if). antiquity can be established from the fact that it has been
Correct Sentence - mentioned in the two great epics. The Mahabharata and the
That man would have attacked you, if you had gone that Ramayana and also in the Puranas.
way. 22. (d)
13. (b) The Naqshbandi silsilah was founded by Khwaja Baqi
In the given sentence use 'unless you do' in place of 'unless Billah. It was the most conservative among Sufi sects.
you did not' because 'unless' (use as conjunction) unless, He opposed the liberal policies of Akbar while the
itself is a negative word so do not use 'not' after it. Chishti sect is the oldest Sufi chain of India. It was
Correct sentence :- founded by Khwaja Moinuddin Chishti in the 12th
"Unless you do your homework you will be punished," century. Qadri order was established in India by Shah
said the teacher. Nayamatullan Qadiri and was introduced in India over
14.(d) Babur period.
In the filler part use 'Have finished' here if clause is 23. (a)
used to show completion of work, so have finished is Sanchi was discovered after 600 years by Bengal
appropriate. Cavalry of Britishers in 1818. The discovery is
Correct Sentence - attributed to General Henry Taylor. The town of Sanchi,
the abode of one of the principal Buddhist sites in
If you have finished, your book, I'd like to borrow it.
located in the state of Madhya Pradesh. The Buddhist
15. (c) monuments there were awarded the status of UNESCO
In the blank space 'Had Known' is appropriate and right World Heritage site in 1989. The Sanchi Stupa is the
one. centre of attraction in the town. Its foundation was laid
Rule- The Structure of IIIrd conditional sentence should by King Ashoka. He builds a hemispherical mound over
be like as: the relics of Buddha. Later expansion of Stupa took
[If + subject + had +v3--------,subject + would have + v3+-- place during the time of the Shunga, the Satvahnas and
-----.] the Gupta period. The victory of Chandragupta II has
Correct sentence- 'If I had known that you were coming been carved on the railing of the Stupa as an inscription.
over, I would have cancelled my programme.' 24. (b)
16. (a) Lord Hasting (1813-1823) was the man who credited
Synonym of word Handy is Convenient the meaning of with formulation of "Policy of Paramountcy."
other words is: According to it the Supreme power of state vests in the
Easy - light, effortless, facile company and also the company is superior than states in
Funny - bizarre, cranky, funky terms of power.
17. (b) 25. (d)
Synonym of Robust is Healthy other words meaning is- On 12th March 1931 Gandhiji started march from
Fragile - frail, negligible, slight Sabarmati Ashram with 72 people and reached Dandi on
Incapable - Inapt, incompetent, inexpert April 6, 1930 and broke salt law by picking up a handful
Practice Set-3 137 YCT
of salt at Dandi. Freedom Fighters such as Sarojini Article 11 parliament to regulate the right of citizenship
Naidu, Rajkumari Amrit Kaur, Kamaladevi by Law. Article 13 laws inconsistent with or in
Chattopadhyay were parts of this march. derogation of the fundamental rights. Article 19 rights to
26. (c) freedom.
Padma Bhushan Kamaladevi Chattopadhyay was a 34.(b)
Gandhian freedom fighter. He was the one who urged Article 39 (A) which deals with the Directive Principles
Gandhiji not to restrict the protest to men alone. of State Policy ensures "equal justice and free legal aid"
The First Round Table Conference took place from 12th by the state to its citizen. 42nd Constitutional
Nov 1930 – 9th Jan 1931 in London. Lord Irwin (1926- Amendment Act, 1976 added this article into the
1931) was the British Viceroy during this time Second
constitution. According to this article state shall ensure
(1931) and Third Round Table Conference (1932) held
during Lord Willingdon (1931-1936) period. PM that equal opportunities for securing justice are not
Willingdon was never has a sympathetic attitude denied to any citizen by reason of economic or other
towards Gandhiji nor INC itself. disability.
27. (a) 35. (b)
In 1855, the Santhal rebellion was started in present-day Under the Article 72 of the Constitution the President
Jharkhand and Bengal (Purulia and Bankura) in eastern shall have the power to grant pardons, in the form of
India against both the British colonial authority and reprieves, respites or remissions of punishment or to
Zamindars by the Santhal people. suspend, remit or commute the sentence of any person
Sidhu and Kanhu were brothers and leaders of the convicted of any offence and similarly as per Article 161
rebellion. The other associates were Chand and Bhairav. Governor of states has the pardoning power.
28. (d) 36. (b)
Peasants of Kheda district were in extreme distress due According to Article 100(3), to hold a meeting in the
to failure of crops and their appeal for the remission of Lok Sabha a minimum 1/10th of the total members of
land revenue were being ignored by British the House must be present. This minimum limit is
government. Though they were entitled to full called quorum.
remission under land revenue code. In case if less than
37. (c)
1/4th of normal production, after Gandhiji intervention
Government passed a resolution and order to collect If the state legislature refuses to pass annual budget
revenue only from rich peasants. then it is usually considered that the government of the
29. (a) day has lost the faith in the legislature state i.e it does
In 1908, a revolutionary conspiracy was intrigued to kill not have majority of the legislative. In such a scenario,
the chief presidency magistrate D.H. Kingsford of the council of ministers along with the Chief Minister
Muzaffarpur. The task was entrusted to Khudiram Bose has to resign.
and Prafulla Chaki. Kanailal Dutta arrested by the 38. (d)
British after murder of Narendranath Goswami. The article 144 of the Indian Constitution mentions that
30. (d) all authorities, civil and judicial in the territory of India
Vitthalbhai Patel was the President of the Central shall act in aid of the Supreme Court.
Legislative Assembly in August 1925. He was the co- Article 121 –Restriction on discussion in parliament.
founder of the Swaraj Party and legislator and political Article 137–Review of Judgment or orders by the
leader of India. He was the President of the Central Supreme Court subject to the provision of any law made
Legislative Assembly between 24 August 1925 to April by parliament.
1930.
39. (a)
31. (c)
S.C. Bose established Azad Hind Government on 25st The Chief Commissioner of Central Information
October, 1943 in Singapore. It was ratified by the Commission is appointed by the President on the
governments of Germany, Japan Philippines, Korea, recommendation of a committee consisting of the Prime
China, Italy. Japan handed over Andman & Nicobar Minister as Chairperson, the Leader of Opposition in
islands to this government. the Lok Sabha and a Union Cabinet Minister nominated
32. (d) by the Prime Minister. The Central Information
Article 36-51 under Part IV of Indian Constitution deals Commission (CIC) was established by the central
with Directive Principles of State Policy. Borrowed government of India in 2005, under the provisions of
from Irish Constitution, has the Article 42 provisions the Right to Information Act (2005). It is a non-
for just and humane condition of work and maternity constitutional body.
relief. 40. (b)
33. (d) Under the 26th Constitutional Amendment Act, 1971,
Article 15 of the Indian Constitution under Part III privy purses were abolished and all rights and liability
prohibits the discriminations to citizens on the basis of and obligation in respect of privy purses were
religion, race, caste, gender and place of birth. extinguished.
Practice Set-3 138 YCT
41. (d) 48. (a)
The 42nd Amendment Act, 1976 added three new The Mid Day Meal Scheme comes under Ministry of
words – Socialist, Secular and Integrity in the preamble. Education. It was launched in the year 1995 as centrally
It also added Fundamental Duties by the citizens (new sponsored scheme. In this scheme every child within age
Part IV A). group of 6 to 14 years shall be provided hot cooked meal
42. (b) who enrolls and attends school.
A mass of snow and ice that moves slowly under the 49. (b)
influence of gravity along a confined course away from International Tropical Timber Organization (ITTO) is
its place of accumulation is called a glacier. Whereas a inter-governmental organization that promotes
lake of salt water that is separated from the sea by sand sustainable management and conservation of tropical
forests resources. It was formed in 1986 and
or rock is called lagoon. Block mountain is a category
headquartered in Yokohama, Japan.
of mountains formed due to faulting in the earth crust.
50. (c)
A plateau is a flat, elevated land form that rises sharply
The Economic Survey is the detailed report of the
above the surrounding area on at least one side.
country's economy and its performance during past one
43. (a) year. It is basically an assessment of the progress of the
Realising the importance of maintaining the cleanliness economy over the 12 month period. Foundational theme
of the water bodies, the Government of India passed the of survey is → Saving lives and livelihoods'. This
Water (Prevention and Control of Pollution) Act, 1974, documents is prepared by economic division of the
to safeguard our water resources. Department of Economic Affairs (DEA) under the
44. (a) guidance of Chief Economic Advisor. It is usually
Ecomark is a certification mark issued by the Bureau of presented a day before the union budget is presented in
the Parliament. First Economic Survey in India was
Indian Standards (BIS) for products which are
presented in the year 1950-51.
ecologically soft and adheres to the standards prescribed
51. (b)
by the BIS. It was first issued in 1991.
During 1991, we adopted the concept of L.P.G.
45. (a) (Liberalization, Privatization and Globalization) in
1921 is known as the year of Great Divide, as Economic reforms for development of the country.
population growth was scarce before 1921. And India's Liberalization → objective is to put an end to those
population growth was consistent after 1921. rigidities and restriction that are acting as hindrance to
1901 - 1911 – 5.9% rise in population growth of the county
1911 - 1921 – 0.39% decrease in population Privatization → Government companies can become
1921 - 1931 – 11.1% increase private sector companies by two ways-
1931 - 1941 – 14.0% increase • By withdrawing control of government in public
1941 - 1951 – 13.5% increase and going increasingly sector company
after then. • By disinvestment
46. (a) Globalization → objective is to develop relations and
The term ''progressive' describes a distribution effect on integration of national economy with the world economy.
income or expenditure, referring to the way the rate New Economic Policy 1991 was launched under the
leadership of P.V. Narsimha Rao.
progresses from low to high, where the average tax rate
52. (c)
is less than the marginal tax rate. As on its basis the low
Imperfect competition's goods and services are
income people will pay less taxes and the high income
heterogenous or differentiated. The characterstics of this
slab will pay more taxes. So there is a shift of wealth
market do not fulfill condition of perfect competitive
from higher to lower class in order to achieve market. The market contains one or few sellers. There
development and equality. are barriers to market entry or exit. Market firms are not
47. (b) price takers, they have control over the pricing of goods
The assumptions of perfect competition are- and services. eg- monopoly, oligopoly, duopoly,
(1). There are large number of firms producing and monopolistic competition, etc.
selling product. 53. (b)
(2). Product of all firms are homogenous. AMRUT stand for Atal Mission for Rejuvenation and
(3). Both sellers and buyers have perfect information. Urban Transformation. It was launched by Prime
Minister of India Narendra Modi in June 2015 with a
(4). Entry and exit from industry is free. focus to establish infrastructure that could ensure
(5). No government regulations. adequate robust sewage networks and water supply for
(6). Perfect mobility of factors of production. urban transformation by implementing urban revival
Practice Set-3 139 YCT
projects. The Mission covers 500 cities that includes all 61. (c)
cities and towns with a population of over one lakh with Antonie Van Leeuwenhoek was a Dutch scientist and
notified Municipalities. discovered the 'Bacteria' in 1683, he is commonly
54. (d) known as "the father of microbiology". Christian
If the vector sum of torques acting on a system is zero, Gottfried Ehrenberg gave the name and described
then the object is in rotational equilibrium. bacterium in 1828.
55. (a) • Polio vaccine developed by Dr. Jonas Salk in 1955.
Thermodynamic body that body whose state can be • Dmitri Ivanovich Mendeleev was a Russian chemist
expressed in terms of its volume, pressure and and inventor. He is best remembered for formulating the
temperature. periodic law and creating a farsighted version of the
For example- Cylinder filled gas and football filled air periodic table of elements.
etc. Similarly, the process adopted to change a body • Joseph Priestley discovered the oxygen.
from one stage of its heat, pressure and volume to 62. (b)
another is called a thermodynamic process. Transpiration is the process of water movement through
Isochoric process is that process in which the volume of a plant and its evaporation from aerial parts, such as
the body remains constant during the process no work is leaves, stems and flowers. . Stomata are the tiny
done on or by the gas. openings present on the epidermis of leaves. Vapour
56. (c) escapes into atmosphere through these stomata by
The physical quantity in which both magnitude and diffusing. 80-90% transpiration conduct by stomata.
direction are contained. They are called vector 90% of absorbed water by plant is evaporated through
quantities. transpiration.
Example - Force, velocity, momentum etc. 63. (d)
Hence, Mutation is a result of any change in gene's structure. It
Two vectors are said to be equal if they have equal is considered as genetic mistake, its principle was
magnitude and same direction. proposed by Hugo de Vries.
57. (a) 64. (a)
The acid produced by ants is called formic acid. The Epidermis layer is the outermost layer of skin, it
name comes from the Latin word for ant, which is includes the stratum basale (the deepest portion of
“formica”. Chemically, it is a simple carboxylic epidermis), stratum spinosum, stratum granulosum,
acid.The most common species of black ant delivers a stratum lucidum and stratum corneum (the most
small amount of formic acid through its jaws as it bites. superficial portion of the epidermis).
Formic acid is also found in stinging nettles and the 65. (c)
bites and stings of other insects. The formic acid present The alimentary canal starts from mouth and ends to the
in an ant sting is also known as methanoic acid. The anus which 8-10 meter long vaccum tube like coiled
chemical formula of formic acid is HCOOH. structure. Its main parts are mouth, stomach, intestine,
58. (a) rectum and anus. Liver and Pancreas are
An ion is an atom or molecule which carries charges of complementary digestive glands (These are not parts of
electrons and protons. If the number of electron is more the alimentary canal) which help in food digestion.
than proton, then ion has negative charge and it is 66.(d)
called "anion", and on contrary, if the number of Skeletal muscle is not connective tissue, the major
electrons is less than the proton, then the ion has connective, tissue are - Adipose, blood, bone and
positive charge, and it is called "cation". cartilage. Skeletal muscle attaches to bones and the
59. (c) orbits through tendons.
The presence of air bubble in blood, known as air 67. (b)
embolism occludes blood vessels. The flow of blood is Urine is a liquid by product of the body secreted by the
obstructed causing strokes, heart attacks, pulmonary kidney through a process called urination and excreted
complications. An arterial air embolism is far more through the urethra. The normal chemical composition
dangerous than a venous embolism since it prevents of urine is mainly water content, but it also includes
oxygenated blood from reaching the target organ and nitrogenous molecule such as urea, as well as creatinine
cause ischemia. It can lead to heart attack and death. and other metabolic waste components.
60. (d) 68. (b)
Urine is formed in the kidneys through the filtration of Kwashiorkor disease is caused due to the deficiency of
blood. The urine is then passed through the ureters to protein. Kwashiorkor is a condition usually seen in
the bladder, where it is stored. During urination, the malnourished children. It results from a predominant
urine is passed from the bladder through the urethra deficiency of protein in the food. It leads to generalized
outside of the body. oedema and decreased immunity in children. Protein
Practice Set-3 140 YCT
malnutrition leads to depigmentation, desquamation, 50, 000 × 100
edema, hair color changes (black hair becomes red and = = 2,50, 000
20
brown hair becomes blond), and nail thinning.
Real Capital = Rs. 1,50,000
69. (b)
Good will · capital required – Real capital
In the field of information technology, 'FDD' means
'Floppy Disk Drive'. Floppy disks are used in computers 2,50,000 – 1,50,000
when transferring data from one computer to another. = 1,00,000
70.(a) 80. (a)
IP stand for 'Internet Protocol'. There are two versions The order given for the import of goods is indented, it
can be of two types, open indent and closed indent.
of IP that presently coexist in the global internet. IP
version 4 (IPv4) and IP version 6 (IPv6). IPv4 81. (d)
addresses are 32 bit long and IPv6 addresses 128 bits The following tests are the testing methods of
long. personality-
- ink blot test
71. (c)
- left handedness test and
A computer programme is a collection of instructions
- intersex test
that performs a specific task when executed by a
computer. A computer requires programmes to function. 82. (d)
The principle of delegation is called the subsidiary
72. (c)
principle of compensation. When the insurer
In the context of computer, Wetware is called human indemnifies the insured, then in such a situation he
brain. It is an organic computer, which is constructed takes the place of the insured, that is he gets all the
with the help of living Neurons. Hence, it is also known rights in relation to the thing insured. This principle
as artificial organic brain or neurocomputer. applies to booth marine insurance and fire insurance.
73. (a) Does not apply to life insurance.
Dynamic data exchange is a means of transmitting and 83. (c)
using the data available in one programme in a consumer cooperative stores are established by the
computer to another programme. Dynamic data registrar of cooperative societies, To the registrar of
exchange was first used in 1987 in Windows 2.0 which cooperative societies Right to establish co-operative
provided control of one programme over another. societies.
74. (a) 84. (a)
A database is used to store the information of an In marine insurance there is an implicit assurance in the
organization. We use the principles of the key to create 'lawfulness of the undertaking'.
these database. There are mainly 4 types- Primary key, 85. (d)
Foreign key, Candidate key and Alternate key. Principle of indemnity all other except life insurance
Someone who can fulfill all the requirements of the applies to insurance.
"Primary Key" to preserve a record, it is also called 86. (d)
"Candidate key". Contribution
75. (d) Margin of safety Ratio =
Sales at B.E.P.
The IBSA Trust Fund Agreement was signed between
Margin of safety ratio = Total sales − Sales at B.E.P.
India, Brazil and South Africa on October 2017.
87. (d)
76. (b)
Revenue expenditure is the expenditure which gives
In case of bankruptcy of one partner, the balance of
profit to the organization only in the year in which it is
reserve fund and profit and loss account is divided
incurred. Legal expenditure is incurred only for that
among all the partners in their profit sharing ratio. year, that is, it is revenue expenditure.
77. (d) 88. (a)
All the above mentioned conditions are true in respect Prepaid rent is an advance payment on a lease of
of re-issue of shares issued at discount. property. Prepaid rent should be shown on the assets
78. (b) side of the balance sheet.
The term amortization in depreciation is used in 89. (a)
intangible fixed assets. Intangible assets are those assets Stocks are valued at lower of cost or market value. So
which are not visible and have business value like- that there is less chance of loss in future.
goodwill, patent, copyright, trade mark etc. 90. (b)
79. (a) Scientific management is used in rationalization, under
Profit × 100 this division of works, scientific selection of workers
Capital required · etc. is included.
rate
Practice Set-3 141 YCT
91. (c) 100. (c)
The 'X' and 'Y' theory of motivation was propounded by According to the minimum wages Act 1948, it is
sir Doubles Mc Gregor. entirely the responsibility, of the employer to make and
92. (d) maintain registers and records. If the employer does not
The balance sheet tells the financial position of a keep proper record register, then financial penalty is
company It details the assets and liabilities of the also imposed on his for this.
organization. It is made at the end of the year Balance 101. (d)
sheet is important for the economic analysis of an N = 314 + 313 – 12
organization. = 312 [32+3] – 12
93. (b) = 312 × 12 – 12
The code of correct matching of List-I with List-II = 12[312 – 1]
List-I List-II = 12 (36 + 1) (36–1)
A. Cash (4) Current Asset = 12 × 730 × 728
B. Profit (1) Equity share Hence the largest prime factor = 73
C. Discount on issue of share (3) Fictitious 102. (c)
D. Machinery of plant (2) Fixed Asset
94. (a) : 18 – 2 77
The proposed dividend is shown under the head ⇒ 11+ 7 – 2× 11 × 7
'provisions' in the balance sheet of the company as the
( ) ( )
2 2
dividends is only proposed now. ⇒ 11 + 7 – 2 11 × 7
95. (a)
cost of Assets · 57,000
( )
2
⇒ 11 – 7 = 11 − 7
Scrap value · 2000
103. (b)
57000 − 2000 55000
Depreciation · = = 5500 /P.A Let initial number of students = x
10 10
According to the question,
cost - scrap value
Formula- 69.5x + 10 × 68 – 6 × 60= (x+10–6) ×(69.5+2)
estimated life
69.5x + 10×68 – 6×60 = (x+4)×71.5
69.5x + 680 – 360 = 71.5x + 286
sum of years ·10 + 9 + 8 + 7 + 6 +5 + 4 + 3 + 2 +1 = 2x = 320 – 286
55 2x = 34
55000 x = 17
× 10 = 10000
55 ∴ Number of students = 17 + 4 = 21
96. (b) 104. (d)
According to section '16' of the trade unions Act, 1926 Given that–
registered trads unions can constitute a separate fund for Cost of bread = `20
achieving such political objectives which are not in
Rest money left with Atul = 100 – 20 = `80
consistent with the objective of that trade union.
Ratio of the coins of denominations of `2, `5 and `10 =
97. (c)
5:4:1
A worker who is a member of the executive body of a
According to the question,
registered trade union associated with the entity or any
other authority and is recognized as a protected worker Ratio of amount = 5 × `2 : 4 × `5 : 1 × `10
under the rules applicable to the entity, shall be a ⇒ `80 = 10 : 20 : 10
protected worker under the industrial disputes Act. ⇒ `80 = 1 : 2 : 1
98. (c) Q 4 = `80
India is a founder member of the international labour 80 × 2
organization which came into existence in 1919. At ∴ 2 = 4
present the ILO has 187 members.
= `40
99. (d)
40
According to the minimum wages Act, 1948 the term ∴ No. of `5 coins = =8
wages only includes basic pay, it does not include 5
allowance and provident fund. So, option (d) is correct.
Practice Set-3 142 YCT
105. (b) x + 3 + x − 3
Phase-I
12 =1
x −9
2
60 24x = x2 – 9
Expenditure of E · 50000× = 30000
100 x2 – 24x – 9 = 0
20
Expenditure of T · 30000 × = 6000 24 ± 576 + 36
100 x=
2
15
Expenditure of C · 6000 × = 900 24 ± 612
100 = = 12 ± 3 17
First savings according of question · 2
Taking the positive sign,
( 50000 − 36900 ) = 13100
Pharse-II
( )
= 3 4 + 17 km / h
60 109. (a)
Expenditure of E · 70000 × = 42000 Donation collected by middle class students = `6750
100
30 Percentage of middle class students = 30%
Expenditure of T · 42000 × = 12600 30% = 6750
100
1% = 225
20
Expenditure of C · 12600 × = 2520 Percentage of primary class students = 18%
100
Money collected by primary classes 18 × 225 = `4050
Second saving · ( 70000 − 57120 ) = 12880 110. (b)
∴ Difference between both savings. · Area of square = a2
a2 = 784
(13100 − 12880 ) = `220
a2 = 42×72
106. (a) a = 4×7 = 28 cm
−14%→
x +14% y
SP ← Area of circle = πr2
a 28
∴
x 114 57
= = Qr = = = 14 cm
y 86 43 2 2
22
( 57 + 43) = 624 ®. Area of circle = × 14 × 14
7
100 = 624 ®. = 616 cm2
624 111. (c)
57 − 43 = 14 = × 14 = `87.36
100 A right circular cone of largest volume cut out from a
107. (a) solid wooden hemisphere.
1
Let the distance covered by first train in hr
2
1
Distance = 50 × = 25 km
2
Remaining distance = 575 – 25 = 550 km
Both trains will meet at a distance of x km from Hence, radius of cut out cone will equal to the radius of
station B. hemisphere and height of cone will equal to the radius
550 − x x of hemisphere.
∴ =
50 60 ∴ percentage of remaining material of the volume of
3300 – 6x = 5x original hemisphere
11x = 3300 2 3 1 3
πr − πr
x = 300 ·3 3 × 100
∴ Distance from station A=25+(550 – 300) = 275 km 2 3
πr
108. (d) 3
Let the speed of boat in still water = x km/h 1 3
· × × 100
12 12 3 2
+ =1 ⇒ [Q 60 min = 1hour ]
x −3 x +3 · 50%
Practice Set-3 143 YCT
112. (a) 116. (c)
P = `8000
r = 20% per annum = 10% half yearly
CI = `2648
r
n
CI = P 1 + − 1
10
10
n
So, it is clear by the figure that last place of Dropu is D
2648 = 8000 1 + − 1 and she will have to go west to reach B from D.
100
117. (b)
n
331 11
= −1
1000 10
n YP OI 5S LD
11 331 1331
= 1+ = Hence option (b) is correct option.
10 1000 1000
118. (c)
n 3
11 11
=
10 10
n = 3 half-yearly or 18 months
113. (a)
TRB50%U7C4#KF$2UE*18I23V@9I
It is clear that Babita is the mother in law of Geeta.
X@ LAB
119. (b)
It is clear that only one consonant is here in the P⇒ '–', Q ⇒ '÷', R ⇒ '+', S ⇒ '×'
following sequence, of which is immediately followed 15Q3R24P12S2
by a vowel but not preceded by a number. = 15÷3+24–12×2 = 5+24–24= 5
114. (d) 120.(a)
Age category Age category persons number
20 - 30 37
30 - 40 38
40 - 50 70 mode category
50 - 60 42
60 - 70 13
Conclusion cannot be drawn because in the statement it
here - L = minimum limit of mode category · 40
f1 · number of mode category · 70
is said that B is the daughter of C, while the enemy is
f0 = Number of the persons belongs to upper
not mentioned in the statements.
cless of polymer class = 38
115. (a) f2 · Number of persons belongs to the class
The venn diagram is- below the polymer class · 42
i · higher limit – lower limit (quadratic) · 10
f1 − f 0
mode (z) = L + ×i
2f1 − f 0 − f 2
70 − 38
= 40 + × 10
70 × 2 − 38 − 42
32
= 40 + × 10
140 − 80
320
= 40 + = 40 + 5.33 = 45.33
Hence figure (a) represent the following facts. 60
Practice Set-3 144 YCT
PRACTICE SET - 4
1. The following sentence has been divided into 9. Select the most appropriate word for the given
parts. One of them may contain an error. Select group of words.
the part that contains the error from the given A particular form of a language which is
options. If you don't find any error, mark 'No peculiar to a specific region
error' as your answer. (a) dialect (b) lingo
A probe has been ordered/ by the incident/ that (c) jargon (d) slang
occurred at the celebrations. 10. Select the most appropriate one-word
(a) A probe has been ordered substitution for the given group of words.
(b) that occurred at the celebrations A person of evil reputation.
(c) by the incident (a) notorious (b) famous
(c) icon (d) renowned
(d) No error
11. Select the most appropriate meaning of the
2. In the following question, some part of the given idiom.
sentence may have errors. Find out which part A dry run
of the sentence has an error and select the (a) a poor harvest (b) a rehearsal
appropriate option. (c) a slow run (d) a run on dry ground
The information contained in this electronic 12. Select the most appropriate meaning of the
(1)/ message and any attachments to this given idiom.
message (2)/ is intended for the exclusive use of Make up one's mind
this recipient. (3)/ No error (4). (a) to decide (b) to lie
(a) 1 (b) 2 (c) to pretend (d) to achieve
(c) 3 (d) 4 13. Select the segment in the sentence, which
3. Select the most appropriate option to fill in the contains the grammatical error.
blank. They had to wait for the luggages to be put into
This is the reason _______ I don't attend the cab before they themselves got into it.
parties. (a) before they themselves got into it
(a) because (b) since (b) for the luggages
(c) so (d) why (c) They had to wait
4. Select the most appropriate option to fill in the (d) to be put into the cab
blank. 14. In the sentence identify the segment which
We must start now –––– it will be too late contains the grammatical error.
The length of a male swallow's tail reveal his
(a) until (b) unless
attractiveness for a female swallow.
(c) or (d) but (a) a female swallow
5. Select the most appropriate synonym of the (b) his attractiveness for
given word. (c) a male swallow's tail reveal
Despicable (d) The length of
(a) Commendable (b) Laudable 15. Fill in the blank with the most appropriate
(c) Contemptible (d) Desirable option.
6. Select the synonym of the given word. She made an ____ to break the record for long
Nebulous jump.
(a) Stable (b) Faith (a) attack (b) intention
(c) Vague (d) Dearly (c) exercise (d) attempt
7. Select the most appropriate antonym of the 16. Select the most appropriate option to fill in the
given word. blank.
DESPAIR His –––––– of the topic was so good that
students had few doubts at the end of the class.
(a) pride (b) calm
(a) exposition (b) picturisation
(c) hope (d) dearth
(c) exhibition (d) qualification
8. Select the most appropriate antonym of the 17. Select the most appropriate synonym of the
given word. given word.
NOTORIOUS IMITATION
(a) vicious (b) infamous (a) fake (b) genuine
(c) famous (d) disgraceful (c) real (d) original
Practice Set-4 145 YCT
18. Select the most appropriate synonym of the Which of the statement given above is/are
given word. correct ?
STERILE (a) 2 and 3 only (b) 3 only
(a) productive (b) barren (c) 1 and 3 only (d) 1 only
(c) sordid (d) pure 27. A Satyagrahi can win by non-violence.
19. Select the most appropriate ANTONYMN of (a) By influencing the allies of the oppressors
the given word. (b) By influencing the compassion of the tyrants.
IGNITE (c) influencing the conscience of the tyrants.
(a) light (b) burn (d) influencing the leadership of tyrants.
(c) kindle (d) extinguish 28. The ‘Cabinet Mission’ of 1946 was led by
20. In the following question, out of the given four (a) Lord Linlithgow
alternatives, select the one which is opposite in (b) Lord Mountbatten
meaning of the given word. (c) Sir Pethick Lawrence
Swindle (d) Sir Mountford
(a) Insert (b) Dupe 29. Who was the first Indian to get selected in ICS?
(c) Ample (d) Honesty (a) Dadabhai Naorojee
21. The popular rock-cut sculpture, the 'Descent of (b) Subhash Chandra Bose
the Ganga' is found in which of the following (c) Ravindra Nath Tagore
places of India? (d) Satyendra Nath Tagore
(a) Tanjore (b) Mahabalipuram 30. With reference to the 1857 revolt consider the
(c) Madurai (d) Mount Abu following statements.
22. Jiziya Tax, during the Mughal Empire was a 1. The sepoys of Meerut appealed to Bahadur
tax levied on: Shah Zafar to accept the leadership of the
(a) Noble citizens revolt.
(b) Non-Muslim citizens 2. In Kanpur, the sepoys made Nana Sahib as
(c) Muslim citizens their leader.
(d) All the citizens 3. In Awadh, Rani Laxmibai was made the
23. In the context of colonial India, the Hartog leader.
committee report is related to which of the Which of the given statements is/are correct?
following fields. (a) 1 only (b) 1 and 2 only
(a) Health (b) Education (c) 2 and 3 only (d) 1, 2 and 3
(c) Irrigation (d) Urbanisation 31. Who was the first Indian to join the Viceroy's
24. Choose the correct option with respect to the Executive Council ?
Round Table Conference held in the 1930s. (a) Tej Bahadur Sapru
(a) MK Gandhi took part in the third Round (b) PS Siwaswami Lyer
Table Conference (c) Syed Ali Iman
(b) Dr. BR Ambedkar participated in all three (d) Satyendra Prasad Sinha
conferences 32. Which one of the following is wrong with
(c) Lord Reading was the Viceroy when the first respect to Fundamental Rights in India?
Round Table Conference was held (a) They are protected and guaranteed by the
(d) The Congress participated in all three Supreme Court
conferences (b) They are absolute but finite
25. Who among the following presided over the (c) They are irrevocable or permanent
special session of Congress in September 1923 (d) Right to property has been removed from the
and at the age of 35 became the youngest man list of fundamental rights
to be elected as the President of the Congress? 33. Which of the following Articles of the
(a) Mahadev Govind Ranade Constitution of India deals with the protection
(b) Ram Manohar Lohia of interests of minorities ?
(c) Bal Gangadhar Tilak (a) Article 42 (b) Article 18
(d) Maulana Abul Kalam Azad (c) Article 29 (d) Article 24
26. With reference to India's freedom struggle 34. Article 41 of the Indian Constitution "Right to
consider the following statements : work, to education and to public assistance in
1. Entrepreneurs, such as G.D. Birla opposed the certain cases" deals with?
national movement openly. (a) The Union Government
2. On 26 January 1930, "Independence Day" was (b) The Directive Principles of State Policy
observed. (c) The State Government
3. The Dandi March ended on 6 April 1930. (d) The Fundamental Rights of the Indian Citizen
Practice Set-4 146 YCT
35. The President may issue a proclamation of (a) Chlorofluoro carbon (b) Methane
emergency under Article 356 on receipt of a (c) Carbon dioxide (d) Nitrous oxide
report from the ––––– of a state. 44. Carbon dioxide is produced by all of the
(a) Governor following except
(b) Advocate-General (a) Burning fossil fuels (b) Global warming
(c) Speaker of the Legislative Assembly (c) Cement production (d) Deforestation
(d) Chief Justice of the High Court
45. Literacy rate in India is measured after which
36. In the context of Indian parliament what is age?
'Zero Hour'?
(a) 5 years and above
(a) Time in the first half of the parliamentary
proceeding (b) 7 years and above
(b) Time immediately after Question Hour (c) 9 years and above
(c) Time before Question Hour (d) 11 years and above
(d) Time in the last half of the parliamentary 46. The mixed economy is :
proceeding (a) co-existence of traditional and modern
37. Which of the following statement is correct? industries
(a) The Governor can dissolve the Legislative (b) Presence of domestic and foreign investments
Assembly of a State (c) a market system of resource allocation,
(b) The Speaker of the Lok Sabha can dissolve commerce, and trade in which free markets
the Lok Sabha coexist with government intervention
(c) The President can dissolve the Rajya Sabha (d) Presence of subsistence and commercial
(d) The Vice-President can dissolve the farming
Legislative of a State. 47. A market place in which a final good or service
38. Lok Adalats have been constituted under......... is bought and sold is called ___.
(a) Legal Conciliation Act (a) Commodity Market (b) Equity Market
(b) Legal Services Authority Act
(c) Factor Market (d) Product Market
(c) Administration of Justice Act
48. Golden Hand Shake scheme is the name of
(d) Arbitration and Conciliation Act
(a) Retirement Scheme
39. Which one of the following committee is
(b) Voluntary Retirement Scheme
described as the 'twin sister' of the Estimates
Committee? (c) One Rank One Pension Scheme
(a) Public Accounts Committee (d) Private Sector Retirement Scheme
(b) Committee on Public Undertaking 49. Which one of the following is responsible for
(c) Departmental Standing Committee the preparation and presentation of Union
Budget?
(d) Privilege Committee
(a) Department of Economic Affairs
40. The Comptroller and Auditor General is closely
connected with which of the following (b) Department of Revenue
Committees of Parliament? (c) Department of Expenditure
(a) The Estimates Committee (d) No option is correct
(b) The Committee on Public Undertakings 50. During a recession ..........
(c) The Public Accounts Committee (a) Producers will be cautiously optimistic.
(d) All of these (b) There will be decrease in inventory
41. Which Constitution Amendment Act inserted (c) There will be capacity under utillzation.
Article 21-A to the Constitution of India as a (d) There will be expansion in bank credit
fundamental Right? 51. Which of the following will cause an increase in
(a) 78th Amendment Act demend for a good?
(b) 92nd Amendment Act (a) an increase in income if the good is an inferior
(c) 86th Amendment Act goods
(d) 82nd Amendment Act (b) a decrease in the price of the goods
42. In which of the following modes of nutrition do
(c) a decrease in income if the good is a normal
organisms take in nutrients in solution form
goods
from dead and decaying matter?
(a) Saprotrophic nutrition (d) an increase in the price of its substitute goods
(b) Insectivorous nutrition 52. Which of the following taxes levied by central
(c) Symbiotic nutrition government but does not distribute with state
(d) Parasitic nutrition government?
43. Which of the following green house gases has the (a) Sales Tax (b) Excise duty
greatest heat-trapping ability? (c) Corporation Tax (d) Income
Practice Set-4 147 YCT
53. Which of the following government schemes 62. The blood clot formed is due to presence of
was launched with the objective of achieving which of the following?
inclusive growth, by developing the skills and (a) Red Blood Cells (b) White Blood Cells
productive capacity of the rural youth from (c) Hemoglobin (d) Platelets
poor families? 63. Charles Darwin, the famous evolutionist,
(a) Deen Dayal Upadhyaya Grameen Kaushalya proposed his theory in which one of his books?
Yojana (DDUGKY) (a) The families of flowering plant
(b) Pandit Deendayal Upadhyay Shramev Jayate (b) The origin of species
Yojana (PDUSJY) (c) The life on earth
(c) Mission Indradhanush (d) The story of the living world
(d) Deen Dayal Upadhyaya Gram Jyoti yojana 64. Which of the following is a characteristic of
(DDUGJY) permanent tissue?
54. In a nuclear reactor, what role does the (a) Cells divide repeatedly
moderator play? (b) Inorganic inclusions are absent
(c) Intercellular spaces are present
(a) It acts like a catalyst in the reaction
(d) Vacuoles are absent
(b) It is used to stop the reaction
65. Nitrogen fixation is a process of –
(c) It starts the process of nuclear fusion
(a) Assimilation of nitrate
(d) It slow down the neutrons released from fission (b) Utilisation of nitrogen gas
55. What will happen if an object is dropped from a (c) Conversion of organic nitrogen to proteins
height and there is no air resistance? (d) Conversion of molecular nitrogen to
(a) It will fall with a constant speed and ammonia
acceleration 66. Which of the following is NOT present in a
(b) Its acceleration will increase matured stomata?
(c) Both speed and acceleration will increase (a) Plasmodesma (b) Chloroplast
(d) Its speed will increase (c) Cell wall (d) Vacuole
56. A periscope makes use of: 67. The name of which disease among the following
(a) two spherical mirrors means 'evil influence of the stars'?
(b) three spherical mirrors (a) Influenza (b) Plague
(c) two plane mirrors (c) Typhoid (d) Cholera
(d) three plane mirrors 68. What is Thalassemia?
57. Which of the following is Not a use of washing (a) A type of hereditary blood disorder
soda? (b) A type of infectious skin disorder
(a) It can be used as a cleaning agent for (c) A type of curable cancer
domestic purposes (d) A type of protein present in dairy animals
(b) It is used in glass, soap and paper industries 69. In the context of computers, WORM is an
acronym of :
(c) It is used to make drinking water free from germs
(a) Write Once, Read Many
(d) It is used for removing permanent hardness of
(b) Word On, RAM Memory
water
(c) Word Optical, Recognition Malware
58. The explosion of crackers is an example of ___.
(d) Wireless Operating, Read Module
(a) Evaporation (b) Combustion
70. The Network is overloaded with enormous data
(c) Precipitation (d) Decomposition sent by many computers within the network.
59. Photosynthesis in plants converts light energy The inability of the network to deliver the data
into _____ energy. is termed as
(a) Thermal (b) Physical (a) Access control (b) Congestion
(c) Kinetic (d) Chemical (c) Error propagation (d) Deadlock
60. At which stage in its life cycle does the 71. What is called the process of starting a
silkworm yield the fiber of commercial use? computer and loading the necessary parts of
(a) Larva (b) Egg the operating system in RAM?
(c) Pupa (d) Imago (a) Booting (b) Sweeping
61. Which of the following is a symptom of (c) Maping (d) Taging
haemophilia? 72. One of the common forms of representing
(a) Night Blindness remote sensing data as information is in the
(b) No clotting of Blood form of
(c) Rickets (a) Thematic Maps (b) Political maps
(d) Loss of haemoglobin (c) Distribution maps (d) Land use maps
Practice Set-4 148 YCT
73. The computers and computer networks 82. When costom duty is levied according to the
exchange information using …........ to weight of goods, it is known as:
communicate with each other. (a) Revenue duty
(a) Server (b) Excise duty
(b) Transmission Control Protocol (c) Specific duty
(c) Digital Network (d) Ad-valorem duty
(d) World Wide Web 83. 'SWOT' is used for :
74. What is the name of memory buffer used to (a) Planning
accommodate a speed differential? (b) Organising
(a) Cache (b) Stack Pointer (c) Motivating
(c) Accumulator (d) DISC (d) Controlling
75. Which of the following elements is NOT 84. In a Marine Insurance Policy, the R. D. Clause
suitable for the fabrication of a light emitting means
diode structure? (a) Reduced Damage Clause
(a) Gallium phosphide (b) Restricted Damage Clause
(b) Indium gallium nitride (c) Recurring Damage Clause
(c) Germanium (d) Running Down Clause
(d) Gallium arsenide 85. A leaves certain goods with B for safe custody.
76. The objective of social accountings is to find Who has insurable interest in goods?
out (a) Only A
(a) efficiency (b) Only B
(b) profit earnd (c) Both A and B
(c) cost and benefit to society (d) None of the above
(d) value of personnel 86. X Ltd. has current ratio of 2:1 and quick ratio
77. Capitalization method of valuation is used for of 1.5 : 1. If its current liabilities are Rs. 80,000
valuation of the following: then the value of stock would be:
(a) Shares (a) Rs. 1,60,000 (b) Rs. 1,20,000
(b) Goodwill (c) Rs. 40,000 (d) Rs. 80,000
(c) Fixed asset
87. Which one of the following does not consititute
(d) Stock in trade
a current liability?
78. Which one of the following statements is (a) Bill's Payable
FALSE :
(b) Contingent liability
(a) Accounting is commonly treated as language
(c) Trade creditor's
of business
(b) There are many views about accounting (d) Outstanding Rent
principles 88. The accounting standards is India are
(c) There is no application of conservatism Prescribed by :
principle in accounting (a) Company law board
(d) Accounting is based on accounting equation (b) ICAI
79. 'Letter of Credit' is opened in case of : (c) Indian Standards Board
(a) Foreign Trade (d) ICWAI
(b) Internal Trade 89. Expenses Incurred for the Installation of plant
(c) Both (a) and (b) above and machinery will be treated as
(a) Revenue expenditure
(d) Obtaining loan from a financial institution
(b) Deformed revenue expenditure
80. The process of determining how to pursue long
term goals with the expected resources (c) General expenditure
available to organization is called (d) Capital expenditure
(a) operational planning 90. Essentials of satisfactory wages system do not
include:
(b) strategic planning
(a) Simplicity
(c) intermediate planning
(b) Fairness
(d) tactical planning
(c) Economy
81. To discourage under insurance an insurance (d) Equality of all workers
company insists on 91. Victor Vroom was the propounded of :
(a) average clause (a) Need Herarchi theory
(b) risk clause (b) Valunce expectancy theory
(c) indemnity clause (c) Z theory
(d) full insurance clause (d) Path-goal theory
Practice Set-4 149 YCT
92. The convention of conservation will have the 98. Labour law cover's----------
effect of : (a) Industrial relation
(a) Over statement of asset (b) Work plance health and safety
(b) Under statement of Asset (c) Employment standards
(c) Under statement of liability (d) All of above
(d) Under statement of provisition for bad debts 99. The Employees 'Pension fund' is established
93. When sale are Rs. 14,900 gross profit Rs. 3300 under sub-section (2) of ------------
net loss Rs. 500, the amount of operating (a) Sec. 8-A (b) Sec. 7-A
expenses will by
(c) Sec. 6-A (d) Sec. 5-A
(a) Rs. 2800 (b) Rs. 3800
100. Under the Payment of Gratuity Act 1972. the
(c) Rs. 11100 (d) Rs. 11600
maximum gratuity payable in ------
94. In the absence of ant agreement, interest to be
(a) 10 Lakhs
allowed to the partner's on their capital
according to Indian Partnership Act will beat (b) 8 Lakhs
the rate of : (c) 5 Lakhs
(a) 5% (d) 3.5 Lakhs
(b) 6% 101. What is the unit digit of 15+25+35+....+205?
(c) 9% (a) 0 (b) 5
(d) None of above (c) 2 (d) 4
95. Match List-I with List-II and select the correct 102. Which of the following statement(s) is/are
answer using the codes given below the lists: TRUE ?
List-I List-II I. 5+ 5> 7+ 3
(Subject) (Provisions of Trade II. 6+ 7> 8+ 5
Unions Act, 1926)
III. 3 + 9 > 6 + 6
A. Appointment of 1. Section 24 (a) Only I (b) Only I and II
Registrar
(c) Only II and III (d) Only I and III
B. Appeal 2. Section 10 103. In a class of 90 students 60% are girls and
C. Amalgamation of 3. Section 3 remaining are boys. Average marks of boys are
Trade Unions 63 and that of girls are 70. What are the
D. Cancellation of 4. Section 11 average marks of the whole class ?
registration (a) 65.3 (b) 66.7
(c) 67.2 (d) 58.9
Code:
104. Rs. 21,000 is divided among A, B and C in such
A B C D
a way that the shares of A and B are in the
(a) 2 4 1 3
ratio 2:3, and those of B and C are in the ratio
(b) 4 1 3 2
4:5. The share of B is:
(c) 3 4 1 2
(a) `12,000 (b) `10,500
(d) 1 3 2 4
(c) `7,200 (d) `7,000
96. According to Section 9A of the Trde Unions
105. In an office, 70% of the total number of
Act, 1926 minimum requirement about
employees are females. 80% of the total
membership of a trade union is
number of employees, including 85 males, got
(a) Seven
promotion. If there are 105 female employees,
(b) Ten percent or one hundred of the workmen then what percentage of female employees got
(c) Then percent or one hundred of the workmen, promotion?
whichever is less (a) 30% (b) 35%
(d) Ten percent or one hundred of the workmen,
1
whichever is less, subject to minimum seven (c) 40% (d) 33 %
97. Failure of the conciliation proceedings under 3
the Industrial Disputes Act leads to refer the 106. The profit made by selling an article for
matter to adjudication by `13,400 is equal to the amount of loss incurred
(a) the conciliation officer on selling the same article at `11,600. What will
(b) both employer and employee be the profit (in `) if it is sold for `14,750?
(c) the employer (a) 2,000 (b) 2,520
(d) the appropriate government (c) 2,500 (d) 2,250
Practice Set-4 150 YCT
107. The distance between the places H and O is D 114. Study the given pattern carefully and select the
units. The average speed that gets a person number that can replace the question mark (?)
from H to O in a stipulated time is S units. He in it.
takes 20 minutes more time than usual if he 9 5 5
travels at 60 km/h, and reaches 44 minutes 5 7 ?
early if he travels at 75 km/h. The sum of the 3 4 5
numerical values of D and S is:
135 140 150
(a) 384 (b) 344
(a) 6 (b) 4
(c) 358 (d) 376
(c) 10 (d) 8
108. Study the given table and answer the question
115. Select the Venn diagram that best represents
that follows.
the relationship between the given set of
The table shows quantity of various food items classes:
used by a restaurant during four months of a Circle, Triangle, Quadrilateral
year (in kg).
(a) (b)
(c) (d)
The quantity of wheat used in the month of 116. Select the option that is related to the third
July is what percentage of the total quantity of word in the same way as the second word is
food items used in June? related to the first word.
16 17 Shirt : Apparel :: Necklace :?
(a) 29 % (b) 29 % (a) Chain (b) Gold
27 27 (c) Jewellery (d) Neck
18 15 117. Select the number that can replace the question
(c) 29 % (d) 29 %
27 27 mark (?) in the following series.
109. A can complete one-third of a work in 10 days 2, 7, 23, 72, 220, ?
and B can do 3/5th of the same work in 24 days. (a) 500 (b) 472
They worked together for 10 days. The (c) 665 (d) 600
remaining work was completed by C alone in 118. If the code for LETTER is written as
15 days. In how many days can C alone do 2/3rd 1252072218 and BLISS is written as 2129198,
of the same work? then which of the given option will be the code
(a) 27 (b) 24 for COMMON?
(c) 32 (d) 30 (a) 31513141113 (b) 31214131514
110. A rectangular sheet of length 42 cm and (c) 31513141214 (d) 31152131512
breadth 14 cm is cut from a circular sheet. 119. The arithmetic mean of 20 observation is 15.5,
What is the minimum area (in cm2) of circular later it is found that an observation written 42
sheet ? by mistake instead of 24. Find out the correct
mean?
(a) 3080 (b) 1540 (a) 14 (b) 14.4
(c) 770 (d) 1030 (c) 14.6 (d) 15
111. The circumference of the base of a right 120. If a school has 50 girls of class X the height
circular cylinder is 62.8 cm and its volume is survey data (in cm) is as follows:
8792 cm3. What is the curved surface area (in Length (in cm) No. of girls
cm2) of the cylinder? (Take π = 3.14)
(a) 1695.6 (b) 1758.4 less than 140 cm 4
(c) 1632.8 (d) 1570.2 less than 145cm 11
112. The difference between the compound interest
and simple interest on `x at 11% per annum less than 150 cm 29
for 2 years is ` 60.50. What is the value of x? less than 155 cm 40
(a) `4500 (b) `4000
(c) `4800 (d) `5000 less than 160 cm 46
113. Four words have been given, Out of which less than 165 cm 50
three are alike in some manner and One is odd.
Find the odd one. Find the median of their height.
(a) Elephant (b) Tiger (a) 144.03 cm (b) 148.89 cm
(c) Wolf (d) Leopard (c) 145.03 cm (d) 149.03 cm
Practice Set-4 151 YCT
SOLUTION : PRACTICE SET- 4
ANSWER KEY
1. (c) 13. (b) 25. (d) 37. (a) 49. (a) 61. (b) 73. (b) 85. (c) 97. (d) 109. (b)
2. (c) 14. (c) 26. (a) 38. (b) 50. (c) 62. (d) 74. (a) 86. (c) 98. (d) 110. (b)
3. (d) 15. (d) 27. (c) 39. (a) 51. (d) 63. (b) 75. (c) 87. (b) 99. (c) 111. (b)
4. (c) 16. (a) 28. (c) 40. (c) 52. (c) 64. (c) 76. (c) 88. (b) 100. (a) 112. (d)
5. (c) 17. (a) 29. (d) 41. (c) 53. (a) 65. (d) 77. (b) 89. (d) 101. (a) 113. (a)
6. (c) 18. (b) 30. (b) 42. (a) 54. (d) 66. (a) 78. (c) 90. (d) 102. (b) 114.(a)
7. (c) 19. (d) 31. (d) 43. (a) 55.(d) 67. (a) 79. (a) 91. (b) 103. (c) 115. (b)
8. (c) 20. (d) 32. (c) 44. (b) 56.(c) 68. (a) 80. (b) 92. (b) 104. (c) 116. (c)
9. (a) 21. (b) 33. (c) 45. (b) 57. (c) 69. (a) 81. (a) 93. (b) 105. (d) 117. (c)
10. (a) 22. (b) 34. (b) 46. (c) 58. (b) 70. (b) 82. (c) 94. (d) 106. (d) 118. (c)
11. (b) 23.(b) 35. (a) 47. (d) 59.(d) 71. (a) 83. (a) 95. (c) 107. (a) 119. (c)
12. (a) 24. (b) 36. (b) 48. (b) 60. (c) 72. (a) 84. (d) 96. (d) 108. (b) 120.(b)
SOLUTION
1. (c) 9. (a)
In this sentence 'by' replaced by 'for' preposition because Given group of words, 'A particular form of a language
'order for' is used to show something and order to used means which is peculiar to a specific region.' So one
for somebody. word for this should be 'dialect' other words meaning-
2. (c)
Lingo - dialect, argot
In this sentence 'is intended for' replaced by 'is intended Jargon-Shoptalk, slang, lingo
to' because intended to used for something or intended to
doing something. Slang-Synonym of Jargon and lingo.
3. (d) 10. (a)
In the given sentence 'why' is more appropriate than any Appropriate one word of given words 'A person of evil
other. 'Why' is a relative pronounce and it is always used reputation is 'Notorious'
to reasons. 11. (b)
4. (c) Appropriate meaning of given idiom/phrase 'Dry run'
In this blank space 'or' is appropriate for this sentence will be option (b) 'A rehearsal' other words give different
Remaining option is:- meaning.
Until - Timing showing 12. (a)
Unless - Condition showing The meaning of given idiom/phrase 'Make up one's
5. (c) mind' should be option (a) to decide. Other words
Despicable :- So worthless, Synonym - Contemptible meaning are- To pretend: - dissemble, simulate
Other words meaning:- 13. (b)
Desirable- Having pleasing qualities, prudent In the above sentence, 'for the luggage' will be used in
Commendable- to entrust for care, confide, delegate place of 'for the luggages', because the plural of luggage
Laudable - worthy of praise, admirable
can not be formed by adding s/es.
6. (c)
Correct Sentence :
'Nebulous - indistinguishable, synonym: Vague.
(Which is not clear) They had to wait for the lugguage to be put into the cab
7. (c) before they themselve got into it.
Despair- loss of hope, Antonym : Hope 14. (c)
Other meaning of words:- In the above sentence use singular verb 'Reveals' in place
Pride- Pompousness, self glory, swell headedness of plural verb 'reveal' because subject 'the length' is
Calm- peace, tranquility singular.
Dearth- Deficiency, drought Correct Sentence :
8. (c) The length of a male swallow's tail reveals his
Notorious- dishonorable, antonym - famous attractiveness for a female swallow.
Meaning of other words:- 15. (d)
Vicious - Blistering, fearsome In the above sentence 'attempt' will be appropriate in the
Disgraceful - discreditable, notorious blank space other words are not suitable.
Practice Set-4 152 YCT
16. (a) 24. (b)
According to sense of the sentence appropriate word for Mahatma Gandhi attended only the second Round Table
flank space exposition (rendition) gives suitable sense of Conference representing the Indian National Congress
the sentence other option give different meaning which took place in 1931. Lord Irwin was the Governor-
Picturisation - make a picture, General and Viceroy of India from 3 April 1926 to 18
Exhibition - Show, April, 1931 and the First Round Table Conference held
Qualification - Eligibility from 12 November 1930 – 19 January 1931. The
Correct sentence- Congress participated in the Second Round Table
His exposition of the topic was so good that students had Conference only. B.R. Ambedkar took part in all the
few doubts at the end of the class. three round table conferences. T. B Sapru also took part
17. (a) in all the three round table conferences.
Synonym of word Imitation is fake. 25. (d)
18. (b) Maulana Abul Kalam Azad presided the special session
of congress in 1923 at Delhi and he became the youngest
Synonym of 'sterile' is 'Barren' (not reproductive)
man to be elected as Congress President. He also became
19. (d)
India's first Education Minister.
Antonym of word 'Ignite' is 'Extinguish' (to dim the 26. (a)
brightness of) In December 1929 the Lahore Session of Congress was
20. (d) held where the goal of "Purna Swaraj" was accepted. On
Antonym of 'Swindle' is 'Honesty'. 31st December 1929 Indian freedom flag was hoisted.
meaning of remaining words- 26th January 1930 was observed as the "Independence
Insert – edge in, inject Day" in the meeting. Gandhiji started Dandi March on
Dupe – One who is easily deceived 12th March 1930 and completed it by breaking salt law
on 6th April 1930. Entrepreneurs like G.D Birla were in
Ample – Abundant, plenty
full support of the national movement.
21. (b) 27. (c)
Mahabalipuram in state of Tamil Nadu is famous for the A Satyagrahi can win 'influencing the conscience of the
splendor of its ancient temples and architecture. Here the tyrants' by non-violence. Non-violence means fighting
work of constructing artistic temples and caves by for political and social changes without using any type of
carving stone was done during the kings of the Pallava harmful weapon or way. The concept of 'Satyagraha' was
dynasty. Mahabalipuram's prevalent Tamil name is introduced by Mahatma Gandhi to designate a
another form of Mamallapuram. This means the city of determined but nonviolent resistance to evil.
wrestlers which has been sent here with the idols of the 28. (c)
Ganges. It is believed that the Gangavataran has been The Cabinet Mission came to India in February 1946. It
demonstrated from the midst of Shiva's Yatra after the was established by British PM Clement Attlee with the
purpose of formulation of a plan to hand over the
sever penance performed by Bhagiratha to the death of
political power to regional Indian leaders. The mission
his ancestors. had three British cabinet members :
22. (b) 1. Lord Pethick Lawrence (the leading figure of the
During Mughal reign the Jiziya was considered as a commission).
religious tax levied on non-muslims. In India the Jiziya 2. Sir Stafford Cripps
tax was introduced by Muhammad Bin Qasim. Firoz 3. A.R. Alexander
Tughlaq was the first ruler to impose Jiziya on Brahmins. 29. (d)
In 1564 Jiziya was abolished by Mughal Emperor Akbar Satyendranath Tagore was selected for the Indian Civil
but again in 1679 it was reimposed by Aurnagazeb. In Service (ICS) in June 1863. He completed his
1720 Muhammad Shah Rangila abolished Jizya probationary training and returned to India in November
1964. He was posted as Judge, Satara after his
completely on the request of Jai Singh.
examination. He was first Indian to get selected in ICS
23.(b)
(Indian Civil Services).
Hartog Committee was constituted in 1929 under the
30. (b)
leadership of Philip Hartog to measure the growth of
Regarding the revolt of 1857, statement 1 and 2 are
education in India. It had following recommendations.
correct because after the death of Mangal Panday, the
→ Fixation of the duration of primary course to 4 years. sepoys of Meerut gathered around the Red Fort on 11th
→ Improvement in the quality training, status, pay, May 1857 and appealed to Bahadur Shah Zafar to be the
service condition of teachers. new leader of the revolt. The Revolt of Kanpur was led
→ Adjustment of school hours and holidays to seasonal by Nana Sahib who attacked General Wheeler's
and local requirement entrenchment on 5th June 1857 and was joined by the
→ Main emphasis of matriculation level. rebel sepoys. Rani Laxmibai led the revolt at Jhansi.
Practice Set-4 153 YCT
31. (d) 38. (b)
According to 1909 Morley Minto reforms the councils The Lok Adalats have been constituted under the Legal
and their powers were extended. Satyendra Prasad Sinha Service Authority Act, 1987. In India it has become an
become first Indian to join the Viceroy's executive alternative of courts for resolving different kind of issues
that is why it has been put under Alternative Dispute
council. Official majority was retained in central Resolution (ADR). It is a forum where cases pending in
legislative council and provincial legislative councils to court of law or at pre-litigation stage are compromised
have non-official majority. amicably. The first Lok Adalat was organized in Gujarat
32. (c) in 1982.
The 'Fundamental Rights' for citizens are included in 39. (a)
Part-III (Article 12 to 35) of our constitution. The Both Public Accounts Committee and Estimates
fundamental Rights are not irrevocable or permanent. Committee on Parliamentary Committees help in
They are subject to appropriate restrictions which include strengthening financial control of Parliament over
executive. Estimates Committee has a role in budget
state security, public morality and decency and cordial
planning i.e. it has a role before approval of expenditure
relations with foreign countries. The Right to Property from parliament whereas Public Accounts Committee
(Previous Article 31) is repealed by 44th Constitutional play its role when actual expenditure has been done i.e
Amendment Act, 1978. Now it is kept as constitutional auditing expenditure. That is why Public Accounts
right under Article 300A. Committee and Estimates Committee are termed as
33. (c) twin sisters.
The fundamental rights of citizens are included in Part 40. (c)
III from article 12 to 35 of India Constitution. In these The Public Accounts Committee (PAC) is a committee
of selected members of Parliament for the auditing of the
articles-
revenue audit report of Comptroller and Auditor General
Article 29 is related to 'Protection of interest of (CAG) after it is laid in the parliament CAG assists the
minorities who are citizens residing in the territory of committee during the course of investigation.
India. Minority citizens who have a distinct language, 41. (c)
script or culture of its own shall have the right to The 86th Constitutional Amendment Act, 2002 provided
conserve the same. ' "Right to Education" as a Fundamental Right in Part III of
Article 18 → Abolition of title the Constitution. The same amendment inserted Article 21A
Article 42 → Availability of appropriate humane which made Right to Education a Fundamental Right for
condition for work. children between 6 to 14 years of age.
42. (a)
Article 24 → Prohibition of child labour.
In saprotrophic modes of nutrition, organisms take in
34. (b) nutrients in solution form from dead and decaying
Article 41 of the constitution deals with the Directive matter. In the context of saprotrophic nutrition, they
Principles of State Policy under Part IV of the possess a special type of digestive mechanism which is
Constitution of India. This article provides right to work, based on extracellular digestion. Therefore, these
to education and to public assistance in case of organisms which include fungi (mushrooms, pilobolus,
unemployment old age sickness and disablement. etc.) certain bacteria (echerichia coli, water mould, etc.)
35. (a) are referred to as saprophytes.
The President of India by the Article 356 of the 43. (a)
constitution may issue a proclamation of emergency on Gases that trap heat in the atmosphere are called green
receipt and report of Governor in a state. The President house gases. Global Warming Potentials (GWPs) are
may also do so on his own conscience and consideration. used to compare the abilities of different green house
The only basis for such proclamation would be the gases to trap heat in the atmosphere. Carbon dioxide is
failure of constitutional machinery in states. used as the base for all the calculations. The GWP of
36. (b) carbon is 1.2. The higher the GWP, the more heat the
In the both houses of parliament during session the time specific gas can keep in the atmosphere. Chlorofluoro
after the question hour is known as the Zero Hour. Usually carbons have the highest heat trapping abilities. These
it occurs between 12 pm -1 pm. The members, during zero gases are 1000 times more powerful than carbon dioxide
hour can raise such questions which are of urgent public (CO2) at trapping heat.
importance and want an urgent action on that issue. 44. (b)
37. (a) Carbon dioxide (CO2) is a colorless gas having a faint
In the given options only 'a' seems to be appropriate. It sharp odour and a sour taste. It is one of the most
is because the Governor may dissolve the state assembly important green house gases linked to global warming. It
in two cases. is produced by combustions of wood, peat and other
1. On the request of Chief Minister. organic materials and fossil fuels such as coal, petroleum
2. When no-confidence motion is passed in state and natural gas. It is also produced in respiration of
legislative assembly. animals.
Practice Set-4 154 YCT
45. (b) 53. (a)
Literacy rate is measured after the age of 7 years or The Ministry of Rural Development announced the
above. According to census 2011, literacy rate of India is Deen Dayal Upadhyaya Grameen Kaushalya Yojana
74.04% where male literacy rate is 82.4% and female Antyodaya Diwas on 25th September, 2014. Deen Dayal
literacy rate 65.46%. In rural areas the literacy rate is Upadhyaya Grameen Kaushlya Yojana (DDU-GKY) is a
68.91% (male - 78.57%, female 58.75%) and in urban part of the National Rural Livelihood Mission (NRLM)
areas is 84.98% (male - 89.67%, female 79.92%). tasked with the dual objectives of adding diversity to the
46. (c) incomes of rural poor families and catering to the career
A mixed economy is the system that is the combination aspirations of rural youth. It was launched with the
of both capitalism and socialism. It protects private objective of achieving inclusive growth by developing
property and economic freedom but also allows for
the spills and productive capacity of the rural youth from
government to interfere in economic activities in order to
achieve social aims. poor families.
47. (d) Beneficiaries-DDU-GKY is a uniquely focused on rural
The product market is the place where supply and youth between the age of 15 and 35 years of poor
demand of final goods interact with each other such as families.
airline travel, smart phones, new cars, pharmaceutical 54. (d)
products and financial services markets such as banking Nuclear energy is used for constructive work by nuclear
mortgages pensions. reactor. It uses thorium, Uranium 235 Plutonium as a
48. (b) fuel and cadmium or boron (rod) is used to control the
Golden Handshake Scheme is associated with Voluntary chain of fission and heavy water is used to slow down
Retirement Scheme (V.R.S.). It is a clause in an the speed of released neutron in nuclear fission worked
executive employment contract that provides the as a moderator.
executive with a significant severance package in the 55.(d)
case executive loses his job through firing, job restricting When an object is dropped from a height and there is no
or every scheduled retirement. This can be in the form of air resistance, its speed will increase due to gravitational
cash, equity and other benefits. It is a technique used by force. and in the presence of air, air will resist the speed
companies for trimming the work force employed in of ball.
industrial unit. 56.(c)
49. (a) A periscope is defined as an instrument used for
There are total five departments in Ministry of Finance. observing over, around or through an obstacle or object
(1) Department of Economic affairs which is prevented by direct line of sight. It uses two
(2) Department of Expenditure plane mirrors. It consists of an outer case with mirrors at
(3) Department of Revenue.
(4) Department of Disinvestment each end at 45° angle. These mirrors are placed parallel
(5) Financial Services. to the surface. A periscope works on the basis of laws of
To prepare budget, to present before parliament is the reflection of light. Any object in the line of sight reflects
responsibility of department of economic affairs. the light making it visible in the periscope.
50. (c) 57. (c)
A recession is a significant decline in economic activity Washing soda is used in cleaning products like grease and
lasting for more than a few months. there is a drop in in softening of water but not as a disinfectant or germicide.
following five economic indicators→ Chlorine is used to make drinking water free from germs.
1. Real gross domestic product Washing soda is chemically known as sodium carbonate
2. Income (Na2CO3. 10H2O).
3. Employment 58. (b)
4. Manufacturing The explosion of crackers is an example of combustion
5. Retail sales. reaction. Combustion is a reaction in which a substance
51. (d) burns in the presence of oxygen to release energy.
Price of one substitute goods has positive relationship 59.(d)
with quantity demanded of another substitute goods, Photosynthesis is the process of making food in green
hence an increase in price of one substitute will lead to plants by using sunlight, water & CO2. It converts light
an increase in demand of another substitute and vice energy into chemical energy. The product i.e. food stored
versa eq. if price of coke increases, than demand for in the plants in form of starch, proteins etc.
Pepsi will rise. 60. (c)
52. (c) At Pupa stage in its life cycle does the silkworm yield
Corporation tax is the tax which is levied by the central the fiber of commercial use. In the pupa stage, a weave is
government and is not divided or shared with the states knitted around by the silkworm to hold itself. After that it
governments. In the 7th schedule of the constitution, swings its head, spinning a fibre made of a protein and
financial sources have been divided between centre and becomes a silk fibre. Several caterpillars form a
states. The taxes levied by the central government are protective layer around pupa and this covering is known
divided into four parts. In the Ist part, there are taxes, as the cocoon. Complete metamorphosis has four stages:
which are levied by the central government and the Egg, Larva, Pupa, and Adult (Imago). In each stage of
income from which is entirely taken by the central complete metamorphosis, the animal looks different than
government. at all other stages.
Practice Set-4 155 YCT
61. (b) 70. (b)
Hemophilia is an inherited bleeding disorder in which a Network congestion is a problem associated with data
person lacks or has low levels of Thromboplastin networking, it affects the performance of the computer.
proteins called “clotting factors” and the blood does not When a large-scale data is transmitted in a computer
clot properly as a result. It leads to continuous bleeding network, it is called network congestion. In fact, there is
and caused death of the person suffering from this when a situation of congestion in networking, when sending
gets injured. It is genetic disorder that spread by females large amount of data sent by computer inside the network
and often affects males. reduces. The sending of data by the network. The process
62. (d) of congestive collapse is adopted to prevent network
Blood clot is formed due to the presence of a cell called congestion.
platelets. To prevent blood loss from our body, these 71. (a)
cells helps and form a layer on that place where we have The process of loading an operating system into a
injury. Actually, vitamin K also helps in blood clotting. computer’s Random Access Memory (RAM) and then
Platelets, also called thrombocytes, a normal platelet preparing the system of users to run applications when
count ranges from 150000 to 4,50,000 platelets per micro the computer is switched on is called booting.
liter of blood. 72. (a)
63. (b) A common form of displaying remote-sensed data in the
Darwin published, his book 'The Origin of Species' in form of information is a thematic map. Thematic map is
1859. Darwinism is the theory of biological evolution a map that displays about a particular area. It shows the
developed by the English naturalist Charles Darwin population, climate, agriculture or cultural aspect of a
(1809-1882) and others. Stating that all species of region.
73. (b)
organisms arise and develop through the natural selection
Computer and computer networks exchange information
of small, inherited variations that increase the individuals
using the Transmission Control Protocol (TCP) to
ability to compete, survive and reproduce.
communicate among themselves. It is important to note
64. (c) that a protocol is a set of rules and procedures designed
Characteristic of Permanent Tissue- to interconnect different computer in a network and
⦁ Cells are well developed and properly shaped simplify the exchange of information. Other types of
⦁ Cell wall is comparatively thicker. protocols are Post Office Protocol (POP), Simple Mail
⦁ There are vacuoles in the cells. Transfer Protocol (SMTP), Hypertext Transfer Protocol
65. (d) (HTTP).
Nitrogen fixation is a process by which molecular nitrogen 74. (a)
in the air is converted into ammonia (NH3) or related The buffer used to adjust the speed difference is called
nitrogenous compounds in soil. Atmospheric nitrogen is a cache. This is the only part of memory that is used for
molecular dinitrogen, a relatively non reactive molecule that temporary storage. It acts like memory bank making it is
is metabolically useless to all but a few organisms. Some N2 easy to access data locally instead of redownloading it
fixing bacteria are Anabaena and Nostoc, Azotobacter, every time you visit a website.
clostridium, rhizobium and various Azospirillum species. 75. (c)
66. (a) The semiconductor material used in LED is Gallium
Plasmodesma is not present in a matured stomata. Arsenide (Ga, As), Gallium Phosphide (Ga Ph) or
Stomata are the tiny openings present on the epidermis of Gallium Aresenide Phosphide and Indium gallium
leaves. A mature stomata contains chloroplast, cell wall nitride.
and vacuole. Stomata play an important role in gaseous 76. (c)
exchange and photosynthesis. They control the Main objectives of social accounting are to find out the
cost and benefit to society by providing different
transpiration rate by opening and closing.
facilities by enterprise and to record them. Social
67. (a)
accounting are to determine whether company is
Influenza means 'evil influence of the stars'. It is
property utilizing their natural resources or not. To
commonly known as 'the flu' and caused by influenza identify and measure the periodic net social contribution
virus. Influenza viruses are RNA viruses belonging to of an individual firm consisting of cost and benefits
para myxovirus family. It is caused by three types of internalized to the firm and externalities affecting social
RNA viruses called influenza types A, B and C. system.
68. (a) 77. (b)
Thalassemia is an inherited blood disorder characterised
There are several method to calculate Goodwill. One
by less oxygen-carrying protein (hemoglobin) and fewer
red blood cells in the body than normal. such method of valuing Goodwill is a capitalization
Symptoms:- Symptoms include fatigue, weakness, profit method. Under the capitalization Method, the
paleness and slow growth. capitalized value of the firm's profit is determined to
69. (a) know the amount of capital required to earn the desired
In computer storage media WORM stands for Write profit. The value of Goodwill can be calculated in two
Once, Read Many. It is a data storage technology that ways-
allows information to be written to a disc a single time & (i) Average profits method
prevents the drive from erasing the data. (ii) Super profit method
Practice Set-4 156 YCT
78. (c) Current Assets = 160000
Conservatism or prudence principle in accounting is the current Assets - Inventory
quick ratio =
general concept of recognizing expenses and liabilities as Current liabilities
soon as possible when there is uncertainty about the 1.5 160000 - Inventory
possible outcome and in contrast record assets and =
1 80000
revenues only when they are assured to be received. 120000 =160000 - Inventory
79. (a) Inventory = 40000
A Letter of credit (LC) is a document that guarantees the 87. (b)
buyer's payment to the sellers. It is issued by a bank and Contingent liability does not constitute a current liability.
ensures timely and full payment to the seller. If the buyer A contingent liability is defined as a liability which may
is unable to make such a payment, the bank covers the arise depending on the outcome of a specific event. It is a
full or the remaining amount on behalf of the buyer. possible obligation which may or may not arise
Letter of credit (LC) is opened in case of foreign Trade. depending on how a future event unfolds. A contingent
liabilities is recorded when it can be estimated, else it
80. (b) should be disclosed.
Strategic planning typically represents mid to long term 88. (b)
goals with a life span of three to five years though it can In India, the accounting standards board (ASB) of the
go longer. It is a process in which an organization's institute of chartered accountants of India (ICAI) is
leaders define their vision for the future and indentify responsible for setting accounting standards (AS).
their organization's goal and objectives. The process Accounting standards has a total of 32 standards.
includes establishing the sequence in which those goals 89. (d)
should be realized so that the organization can reach its Expenses incurred for the installation of plant and
stated vision. machinery will be treated as capital expenditure. A
capital expenditure is money invested by a company to
81. (a) acquire or upgrade fixed, physical or non consumable
A clause in an insurance policy that restricts the amount assets. Capital expenditure is primarily a onetime
playable to a sum not to exceed the value of the property investment in non consumable assets used to maintain
destroyed and that bears the same proportion to the loss existing level of operation within a company and to
as the face of the policy does to the value of the property foster its future growth.
insured compared coinsurance. 90. (d)
82. (c) Essentials of satisfactory wages system should be based
Specific duty is a duty assessed on an article of a given upon scientific time and motion study to ensure as
kind at a flat rate per unit of quantity (such as a ton, standard out but to the employer and a fair amount of
wages to the workers. Essential of satisfactory wages
bushel, or yard) without individual appraisal specific system does include.
duty is lived according to the weight of goods. (i) Simplicity
83. (a) (ii) Fairness
SWOT analysis is often used either at the start of, or as (iii) Economy
part of, a strategic planning process. The frame work is 91. (b)
considered a powerful support for decision-making Valance expectancy theory was proposed by victor
because it enables an organization to uncover Vroom of Yale school of management is 1964. Vroom
opportunities for success that were previously stresses and focuses on out comes and not on needs.
unarticulated. SWOT analysis is a framework for Unlike Maslow and Herzberg. This theory states that the
intensity of a tendency to perform in a particular manner
indentifying and analyzing an organization's strengths, is dependent on the intensity of an expectation that the
weaknesses, opportunities and threads. These words performance will be followed by a definite outcome.
make up the SWOT acronym. 92. (b)
84. (d) The convention of conservation will have the effect of
Marine insurance covers the loss or damage caused to the understatement of assets. According to conservatism
goods during transit between the point of origin and principle all the anticipated losses and expenses should
destination. In marine insurance policy the R.D. clause be taken into account in advance, but all the anticipated
means Running down clause. incomes should not be recorded in advance.
85. (c) 93. (b)
A leaves certain goods with B for safe custody. Both A An operating expense is an expense that a business
and B have insurable interest in goods. Because when incurs through its normal business operations. Operating
two or more persons are said to consent when they agree expenses include, rent, equipment, inventory costs
upon the same thing in the same sense.
marketing, payroll insurance, steps costs and funds
86. (c)
allocated for research and development.
Current Assets
Current Ratio = Sales = `14900
Current Liabilities Gross profit = `3300
2 Current Assets Net loss = `500
=
1 80000 Total operating expenses = 3300+500 = ` 3800
Practice Set-4 157 YCT
94. (d) 102. (b)
In the absence of any provision in partnership deed From statement (I)
interest on capital will not be allowed. In case there is no
information about interest on capital then interest is not 5+ 5> 7+ 3
provided. On squaring both sides,
95. (c)
( ) >( )
2 2
5+ 5 7+ 3
Match list-I with list-II are given following.
List-I List-II ⇒ 10 + 2 25 > 10 + 2 21 (True)
A. Appointment of Registrar - Section 3
From statement II
B. Appeal - Section 11
6+ 7> 8+ 5
C. Amalgamation of trade unions - Section 24
D. Cancellation of registration - Section 10 On squaring both sides
( ) > ( 8 + 5)
2 2
96. (d) 6+ 7
According to section 9A of the Trade unions Act 1926. A
registered Trade union of workmen shall at all times ⇒ (13 + 2 42 ) > (13 + 2 )
40 (True)
continue to have not less than ten percent or one hundred From statement III
of the workmen, whichever is less subject to minimum of
seven, engaged or employed in an establishment or ( 3+ 9 > ) ( 6+ 6 )
industry with which it is connected as its members. On squaring both sides
( 3 + 9) > ( 6 + 6)
2 2
97. (d)
In case of failure of conciliation a report is sent to
Government. The ministry of labour after considering the (12 + 2 27 ) > (12 + 2 36 ) (False)
failure of conciliation report exercise the powers
Hence only statement I and II is true.
available to it under section 10 of the Industrial disputes
103. (c)
Act and either refers the dispute for adjudication or
Given,
refuses to do so.
Total number of students in class = 90
98. (d)
60
Labour law defines the rights and obligation of workers Total number of girls in the class = = 90 × = 54
union members and employs in workplace hence it 100
covers Total number of boys in the class = (90 – 54) = 36
1. Industrial relation 63 × 36 + 70 × 54
Average marks of the whole class =
2. Workplace health and safety 36 + 54
3. Employment standards. 6048
99. (c) = = 67.2
90
The employees 'Pension found' is established under 104. (c)
subsection (2) of section 6A. Given,
100. (a)
A 2 B 4
The Act provides for payment of gratuity at the rate of 15 = , =
B 3 C 5
days wages for each completed year of service subject to
A 2 4 B 4 3
a maximum of Rs. 10 Lakh. In the case of seasonal ⇒ = × , = ×
establishment gratuity is payable at the rate of seven days B 3 4 C 5 3
wages for each season. A 8 B 12
⇒ = , =
101. (a) B 12 C 15
To obtain unit digit divide the power by 4 and the last A : B : C = 8 : 12 : 15
remainder is taken as the power of the base number. So, Hence,
11+21+31+41+51+61 +................201 ⇒ 8x + 12x + 15 x = 21000
20(20 + 1) ⇒
S20 = 35x = 21000
2 x = 600
S20 = 210 B = 12x = 12×600 = 7200
Hence unit digit · 0 Hence the share of B is `7200.
Practice Set-4 158 YCT
105. (d) 108. (b)
Given the, According to the question:-
70% of the total employees in the office are female and Required% = Wheat used in July ×100
total number of female is = 105 Food item used in June
105 400 400
∴ Total employees in office · × 100 ⇒ × 100 ⇒ ×100
70 180 + 420 + 200 + 250 + 300 1350
· 150 employees 17
⇒ 29 %
According to question, 27
109. (b)
Q 80 of the employees in the office including 85 men A completes the work in 30 days.
got promotion. B completes the same work in 40 days.
80
∴ 80% total employees = 150× = 120 Promoted
100
employees
10 days work of A and B = 7 × 10 = 70 unit
∴ Woman employees promoted · 120 – 85 Remaining work = 120 – 70 = 50 unit
· 35 female employees C completes the remaining work in 15 days.
Q Percentage of female employees promoted = Efficiency of C = 50 = 10
35 1 15 3
100× = 33 % Time taken by C to do 2/3 of the same work
105 3
2
106. (d) 120 ×
= 3 = 24 days
Let, the Cost Price of the article · `x 10
Profit = Selling Price – Cost Price 3
Profit · 13,400 – x 110. (b)
Loss = Cost Price – Selling Price
= x – 11600
According to the question
13400 – x = x – 11600
13400 + 11600
Cost Price (x) = =12500 According to the question,
2
Diagonal of rectangle = diameter of circle
Profit · 14750 – 12500
Profit · ` 2250 Diagonal of rectangle = 422 + 142
107. (a) = 142 ( 32 + 12 )
Let the useal time = t
= 14 10 cm
From v1t1 = v2t2 ( Q Distance is equal)
r = 7 10 cm
60 × t +
20 44
= 75 t − The minimum area of a circular sheet = πr 2
60 60
22
= × 7 10 × 7 10
4 t + = 5 t −
1 11 7
3 15 = 1540 cm2
4 11 15 111. (b)
t= + = = 5 hours. Circumference of the base of a right circular cylinder =
3 3 3
2πr = 62.3
∴ Distance = D = v1t1
2 × 3.14 × r = 62.3 ⇒ 6.28 × r = 62.8
20 60 × 16
=60× 5 + = = 320 km r = 10cm
60 3 Now, Volume of cylinder = 8792 cm3
Q The Average speed in stipulated time (S) · πr2h = 8792 ⇒ 3.14 × 100 × h = 8792
h = 28m
D 320
= = 64 km/hr Hence, curved surface area of the cylinder = 2πrh = 2 ×
t 5 3.14×10 ×28
∴ D + S = 320 + 64 = 384 = 1758.4 cm2
Practice Set-4 159 YCT
112. (d) B → 2
If the difference between the compound interest and L → 12
simple interest on Rs. P for 2 years at R% p.a be Rs. D.
I → 9
D × 1002
P= S → 19
R2
Opposite
∴ From question, S → H = 8
R = 11%, D = 60.50 Rupees, P = x Rupees
Same as,
60.50 ×1002
∴ x=
(11) 2 C → 3
x = `5000 O → 15
113. (a)
M → 13
Wolf, Tiger and Leopard these three are carnivores.
Opposite
While, Elephant is herbivores. Hence, option (a) is odd M → N = 14
one. Opposite
114.(a)
O → L = 12
In first Column, 9 × 5 × 3 = 135 N → 14
In second Column, 5 × 7 × 4 = 140
Same as, 119. (c)
In third Column, 5 × ? × 5 = 150 Total sum of 20 inspection but was mistakenly read 42
? × 25 = 150 instead of 24.
?=6
115. (b) ∴ Correct sum · 310 ± 24 – 42 · 292
The Venn diagram relationship between the given
292
classes is follows as – So correct mean = = 14.6
20
120.(b)
length (in cm) frequency Cumulative frequency
135–140 4 4
Circle is circular, triangle has three sides and 140–145 7 11
quadrilateral has four sides, So they all are different.
116. (c) 145–150 18=f 29
Just as a shirt is a Apparel, similarly a necklace is an 150–155 11=fb 40
'Jewellery'.
155–160 6 46
117. (c)
The series is as follow– 160–165 4 50
Σf=N=50
N
2 − fb N 50
⇒ ? = 220×3 + 5 Median = L + ×i where = = 25
? = 660 + 5 f 2 2
? = 665
118. (c) ( 25 − 11) × 5
As, = 145 + L – low limit
18
L → 12
E → 5 70
= 145 + f – original frequency
T → 20 18
Opposite 145 + 3.88 = 148.88 ≈ 148.89
T → G = 7
Opposite i – original frequency
E → V = 22
R → 18 fb – below frequency of original frequency
and,
Practice Set-4 160 YCT
PRACTICE SET - 5
1. Identify the segment in the sentence which 10. Select the most appropriate word for the given
contains the grammatical error. group of words.
Preeti is absent from the meeting due to she is Government run by a small group of people
out of station. (a) aristocracy (b) monarchy
(a) Preeti is absent (b) due to she is (c) plutocracy (d) oligarchy
(c) from the meeting (d) out of station 11. Select the most appropriate meaning of the
2. Identify the segment in the sentence which given idiom
contains the grammatical error. draw a blank
The lady listened carefully to my complaint but (a) be lucky in a game
I doubt she will do anything about it. (b) be unable to sketch
(a) but I doubt she (c) be happy about something
(b) will do anything about it (d) be unsuccessful
(c) to my complaint 12. Select the most appropriate meaning of the
(d) The lady listened carefully given idiom.
3. Select the most appropriate to fill in the blanks. No strings attached
You can go to ________ national Art Gallery (a) Without conditions to restrictions
but I want to visit _______ zoo first. (b) Forced to do something
(a) no word required; the (c) Involving a choice to be made
(b) the; the (d) Lacking clarity
(c) the; no word required 13. Identify the segment which contains the
(d) a; a grammatical error.
4. Select the most appropriate word to fill in the He asked from me if I was interested in a
blank. career in modelling.
You have to do ––––– intensive training to (a) from me if
become a nurse. (b) in a career
(a) the (b) a (c) I was interested
(c) an (d) one (d) He asked
5. In the following question, out of the given four 14. Identify the segment in the sentence which
alternatives, select the one which best expresses contains the grammatical error. If there is no
the meaning of the given word. error, select 'No error'
Embargo The letter was posting yesterday by my
brother.
(a) Barrier (b) Prescribe
(a) by my brother
(c) Comfort (d) Justify (b) No error
6. Select the most appropriate synonym of the (c) was posting yesterday
given word. (d) The letter
OBSTACLE 15. Select the most appropriate option to fill in the
(a) benefit. (b) clearance blank.
(c) accessory (d) barrier The truck was .......... the traffic and the
7. Select the most appropriate ANTONYM of the policeman asked the driver to move off.
given word. (a) obstructing (b) hiding
ERUDITE (c) closing (d) holding
16. Select the most appropriate option to fill in the
(a) scholarly (b) high-brow blank.
(c) savvy (d) ignorant The family made _____ enquiries about his
8. Select the most appropriate antonym of the background.
given word. (a) disputed (b) disastrous
OMINOUS (c) discreet (d) discarded
(a) foreboding (b) threatening 17. Select the most appropriate synonym of the
(c) auspicious (d) baleful given word.
9. Select the most appropriate one-word JOVIAL
substitution for the given words. (a) Jeering (b) Joyous
(c) Judgmental (d) Jealous
Speech made without preparation
18. Select the most appropriate synonym of the
(a) Extempore (b) Statement given word.
(c) Speech (d) Debate Transmit
Practice Set-5 161 YCT
(a) Accept (b) Receive 28. Which of the following is INCORRECTLY
(c) Convey (d) Catch matched with regards to Viceroy and the
19. Select the most appropriate antonym of the corresponding incidents?
given word. (a) Lord Chelmsford – Rowlatt Act
Jovial (b) Lord Reading–Establishment of Swaraj Party
(a) Hesitant (b) Gloomy (c) Lord Irwin–First Round Table Conference
(c) Cheerful (d) Tired (d) Lord Wavell – The Cripps Mission
20. Select the most appropriate antonym of the 29. Which of the following events did NOT happen
given word. during the tenure of Lord Dalhousie?
TYRANT (a) Introduction of first telegraph line
(a) rival (b) benefactor (b) Introduction of Doctrine of Lapse
(c) patron (d) champion (c) Passing of Widow Remarriage Act
21. Which of the following sites of Indus Valley (d) Introduction of Subsidiary Alliance System
Civilization is not on the bank of river Indus ? 30. What was the important feature/outcome of
(a) Kot-Diji (b) Mohenjodaro Lucknow Pact of 1916 ?
(c) Ropar (d) Chanhudaro (a) The Congress did not agree for separate
22. Gnyaneshwar was a 13th-century Marathi saint electorates for Muslims in provincial council
who wrote the Dnyaneshwari, which is a elections
commentary on the………..
(b) It marked the reunion of the moderate and
(a) Ramayana (b) Bhagavad Gita
radical wings of the Congress
(c) Vedas (d) Upanishads
23. Which leader gave us the C R Formula? (c) It widened the gap between the Hindus and
(a) Tilak the Muslims
(b) C.R. Das (d) It led to the partition of Bengal
(c) Mahatma Gandhi 31. Which of the following Acts was enacted in
(d) C. Rajagopalachari British India in the year 1878?
24. With reference to India's freedom struggle (a) Indian Contract Act
consider the following statements : (b) Transfer of Property Act
1. In March 1940, the Muslim League passed a (c) Vernacular Press Act
resolution committing itself to the creation of a (d) East India Stock Dividend Redemption Act.
seperate nation called "Pakistan" 32. Which of the following article of Indian
2. The 'Salt Satyagraha' campaign began in Constitution eliminates untouchability?
August 1942' (a) 18 (b) 20
3. Jayaprakash Narayan was a socialist member (c) 17 (d) 19
of the Congress and was active in the
33. In the Indian Constitution, as per Fundamental
underground resistance during Quit India
Rights, Abolition of Untouchability is a ........
Movement
(a) Right to equality
Which of the statements given above is/are
correct ? (b) Right to freedom of religion
(a) 1 and 2 only (b) 2 and 3 only (c) Right against exploitation
(c) 1 and 3 only (d) 3 only (d) Right to constitutional remedy
25. The famous Irwin declaration of 31 October 34. Part IV of the Constitution of India does NOT
1929 had provision of : explicitly expect the State to secure :
(a) adequate means of livelihood
(a) Total integrations of princely states with the
(b) no concentration of wealth and means of
rest of India production
(b) Universal adult franchise is India (c) maternity leave for employed women
(c) Status of Dominion for India (d) equal pay for equal work
(d) Independence of princely states 35. Who among the following takes part in election
26. The India Independence Bill was first of the President of India ?
presented in the House of Commons in London (a) Elected Members of both the Houses of
on: Parliament and Legislative Assemblies of the
(a) August 1, 1947 (b) August 10, 1947 states
(c) July 4, 1947 (d) July 14, 1947 (b) Elected and nominated members of both the
27. What did Gandhiji meant by ‘Sarvodaya’? houses of Parliament
(a) Non- violence (c) Elected members of both the houses of
(b) Upliftment of untouchables or dalits Parliament only
(c) The birth of a new society based on ethical (d) Elected and nominated members of both the
values houses of Parliament an Legislative
(d) Satyagraha Assemblies of the states
Practice Set-5 162 YCT
36. According to Article___of the Indian Constitution, 46. If a country devalues its currency, its………
the Union Budget of a year, also referred to as the (a) Exports become cheaper and imports become
Annual Financial Statement, is a statement of the costlier
estimated receipts and expenditure of the (b) Exports become costlier and imports become
government for that particular year. cheaper
(a) 101 (b) 112 (c) Exports value is equivalent to imports value
(c) 100 (d) 98 (d) No effect on exports and imports
37. Which Article of the Constitution of India 47. Short term contractions and expansions in
envisages that a person shall not be qualified to economic activity are called.............
be chosen to fill up a seat in the Parliament (a) Expansions (b) Recession
unless he is a citizen of India? (c) Deficits (d) The business cycle
(a) Article 84 (b) Article 76 48. The Mission Indradhanush, an initiative of
(c) Article 61 (d) Article 52 Govt. of India, is associated with :
38. The Contempt of Courts Act was passed to (a) cleanliness
define and limit the powers of certain courts in (b) degitalisation
punishing contempt of courts and to regulate (c) immunisation
their procedure in relation thereto. In which of
the following years was the Act passed? (d) highway development
(a) 1971 (b) 1975 49. Which theory in economics proposes that
countries export what they can most efficiently
(c) 1969 (d) 1982
and plentifully produce?
39. Which one of the following is not a (a) Input-Output Model
Constitutional body?
(b) Heckscher-Ohlin Model
(a) The Election Commission of India
(c) Solow-Swan Model
(b) The Finance Commission
(d) Cournot Competition
(c) The Official Language Commission
50. What is the meaning of the term 'collateral' in
(d) The National Commission for Women
the context of the banking system?
40. The members of the All India Services serve the: (a) Collateral is an asset that a borrower owns
(a) Central Government only and uses this as a guarantee to a lender until
(b) State Government only the loan is repaid
(c) Union Territories only (b) Collateral is an asset that the government
(d) Both the Union and State Governments provides to farmers
41. In case State emergency is declared, it needs (c) Collateral is an asset that a borrower took as a
Parliamentary approval after every……… loan
(a) 6 months (b) 1 year (d) Collateral is an asset of the government that is
(c) 2 years (d) 3 years used for the protection of consumers
42. Components included information of any 51. Which is a subsistence factor used to measure
ecology:-
the poverty line in India?
(a) Physical and Social Components (a) Internet (b) Education
(b) Biotic and Abiotic Components (c) Transportation (d) Equality
(c) Chemical and Physical Components 52. Which one of the following is not an instrument
(d) Biotic and Antibiotic Components of Fiscal policy?
43. There is a protocol signed to reduce production (a) Open Market Operations
of CFC, known as (b) Taxation
(a) CFC Protocol (b) IR Protocol (c) Public borrowing
(c) Montreal Protocol (d) UV Protocol (d) Public expenditure
44. Which of the following is NOT a major 53. In which of the following years did the Prime
problem in development of resources? Minister of India, Narendra Modi, launch Atal
(a) Depletion of resources for satisfying the Pension Yojana?
greed of few individuals. (a) 2014 (b) 2018
(b) Accumulation of resources in few hands. (c) 2020 (d) 2015
(c) An equitable distribution of resources. 54. What precaution should be taken to avoid the
(d) Indiscriminate exploitation of resources. overloading of domestic electric circuits?
45. According to the 2011 census, which district of (a) Fuse should be connected in the circuit.
India is the most populated? (b) To many appliances should not be connected
(a) Charu, Rajasthan in single circuit.
(b) Theni, Tamil Nadu (c) Faulty appliances should not be connected in
(c) Ghaziabad, Uttar Pradesh the circuit.
(d) Thane, Maharashtra (d) All options are correct.
Practice Set-5 163 YCT
55. On a clean glass plate a drop of water spreads 66. Which drug is used to cure Hypertension?
to form a thin layer whereas a drop of mercury (a) Risedronate (b) Diazepam
remains almost spherical because............. (c) Folic Acid (d) Hydralazine
(a) mercury is a metal
67. Which Vitamins are those, if taken in excess
(b) Density of mercury is greater than of water
can be dangerous as they are stored in the
(c) Cohesion of mercury is greater than its
adhesion with glass body?
(d) Cohesion of water is greater than its adhesion (a) B Complex (b) E and C
with glass (c) B and C (d) A and D
56. Which metal is used as a shield in a nuclear 68. Which of the following is an excellent source of
reactor? iodine?
(a) Uranium (b) Cobalt (a) Fruits (b) Vegetables
(c) Manganese (d) Lead (c) Seaweed (d) Millet
57. Which chemical law proposes that 'soft drinks 69. Which of the following is the first working
and soda bottles are sealed under high pressure prototype of internet?
to increase the solubility of CO2'? (a) APNET (b) ANET
(a) Raoult's law (b) Ohm's law (c) ARPANET (d) PANET
(c) Dalton's law (d) Henry's law 70. In an optical fibre the signal is transmitted
58. Which of the following techniques can be used (a) In a straight line path
for reducing the total dissolved solids (TDS) in (b) In a curved path
water? (c) Due to total internal reflection
(1) Ion Exchange (2) Distillation (3) Carding (d) Due to refraction
(a) Only 1 (b) Only 3
71. Which type of malware is a program or piece
(c) Both 1 and 2 (d) Both 2 and 3 of code that is loaded onto a person's computer
59. What do you call the property of an organism without his knowledge and runs against his
of self-regulation and the tendency to maintain wishes?
a steady state within an external environment (a) Phishing (b) Trojan horse
which is liable to change? (c) Computer virus (d) Adware
(a) Consciousness (b) Metabolism
72. Which of the following is NOT an operating
(c) Homeostasis (d) Irritability system?
60. Trachoma is a preventable disease that results (a) Unix (b) Ubuntu
from poor hygiene and sanitation. Which of the (c) MS-DOS (d) MS-Excel
following body parts does it affect?
(a) Eye (b) Ear 73. What is collection of information saved as a
unit called?
(c) Stomach (d) Heart
(a) File (b) Folder
61. The life span of human WBC is normally ____. (c) Document (d) Program
(a) 3–5 days (b) 45–50 days
74. Which of the following is the slowest type of
(c) 100–110 days (d) 6–8 months internet connection?
62. The nucleus of a cell is surrounded by a jelly- (a) Cable
like substance called: (b) Digital Subscriber Line (DSL)
(a) Stomata (b) Deltoid
(c) Dial-up
(c) Cell membrane (d) Cytoplasm
(d) Satellite
63. Internal fertilization occurs………..
75. Which one among the following components is
(a) inside female body
(b) outside female body used as an amplifying device?
(c) inside male body (a) Transformer (b) Diode
(d) outside male body (c) Capacitor (d) Transistor
64. Helium is added to the Oxygen supply of deep 76. Which of the following is not a feature of a
sea divers because it is______. capitalist economy?
(a) less poisonous than nitrogen. (a) Right to private property
(b) Lighter than nitrogen. (b) Existence of competition
(c) Readily miscible with oxygen. (c) Service motive
(d) less soluble in blood than nitrogen at high (d) Freedom of choice to consumers
pressure. 77. If for a perfectly competitive firm, price is Rs.
65. Fermentation is a type of ____ process. 60, output is 300 units, average variable costs
(a) Aerobic Respiration are Rs. 18, and average total costs are Rs. 36.
The firm’s profits are equal to
(b) Anaerobic Respiration
(a) Rs. 5400 (b) Rs. 3600
(c) Exothermic Reaction
(c) Rs. 7200 (d) Rs. 1800
(d) Transpiration
Practice Set-5 164 YCT
78. A company can re-issue its forfeited shares at a: 87. Insurable interest is one of the essential
(a) premium features of:
(b) face value (a) Life insurance only
(c) a discount (b) Marine insurance only
(d) All of the above (c) Fire insurance only
79. Which of the following transactions is of capital (d) All of the above
nature: 88. Which of the following is not a function of
(a) Purchase of a truck accounting :
(b) Replacement of old tyres (a) Keeping systematic record
(c) Cost of repairing of truck (b) Protecting properties of business
(d) All the above (c) maximising the results
80. The Purpose of providing depreciation is (d) meeting legal requirements
(a) to reduce the book value of fixed assets to the 89. Which of the following is not a Principle of
level of their market value each year. accounting :
(b) to save income tax and wealth tax. (a) Principle of dual aspect
(c) to reduce fixed assets to nill value as soon as (b) Principle of cost
possible (c) Principle of materiality
(d) to allocate the cost of fixed assets over their (d) Principle of accuracy
working life 90. Social responsibility is undertaken by a
81. The Double Entry System of accounting business organisation because
originated in : (a) it is a legal for malty
(a) America (b) Russia (b) it devices all its resources from the society
(c) Italy (d) England (c) it satisfies top management
82. Realization principle of accounting does not (d) it gives more power to the organisation to
apply to : influence the Government
(a) Service industry 91. On the retirement of the partner, the revenues
(b) Mining industry created out of profit should be transferred to
(c) Railway transport the capital account of
(d) Long-term construction contracts (a) The remaining partner's in their new profit-
sharing ratio
83. A superior can delegate to his subordinate
(a) only authority (b) The remaining partner's in their old profit
sharing ratio
(b) only responsibility
(c) All the partners in the old profit-sharing ratio
(c) both authority and responsibility
(d) All the partners in the ratio of their capital
(d) neither authority nor responsibility
balance
84. Principle of Indemnity applies to:
92. Capital is considered as a business liability
(a) Life insurance only
according to following concepts of
(b) Marine insurance only
(a) Separate business entity
(c) Fire insurance only (b) Matching
(d) Any type of insurance other than life insurance (c) Going concern
85. The order for import of goods is called : (d) Conservation
(a) Indent 93. On purchases of old furniture Rs. 8000 were
(b) Import Order spent on its repairs, this amount should be
(c) Bill of Lading debited to
(d) Letter of Credit (a) Repairs & Account
86. The process of evaluating employee is called: (b) Furniture Account
(a) Performance appraisal (c) Wages Account
(b) Recruitment (d) None of above
(c) Induction 94. An individual dispute becomes industrial
(d) Job evaluation dispute when it is taken up by
Practice Set-5 165 YCT
(a) Union only in A. What is the average score of the students
(b) Union or substasntial number of workmen in A ?
(c) Continuous support of union (a) 44 (b) 45
(d) Subsequent support of union (c) 45.5 (d) 44.5
95. No person employed in a public utility service 4
104. of the total number of students in a school
shall go on strike 9
1. without giving notice of stake to employer 3
are girls and the remaining are boys. of the
2. within 14 days of giving such notice 5
3. after expiry of date specified in notice for total number of boys is below than 12 years
strike 5
and of the total number of girls is 12 years
4. within 7 days of conclusion of conciliation 12
proceeding or more. If the number of students below than
(a) I and IV (b) I and III 12 years is 480, which of the following is equal
(c) I and II (d) II and III 5
to of the total number of students in the
96. To be a member of trade union, a person must 18
attain the age of school ?
(a) 18 years (b) 16 years (a) 270 (b) 315
(c) 15 years (d) 21 years (c) 225 (d) 240
97. The power of the Government to refer a 105. If 66⅔% of 75% of one-eighth of a certain
Dispute under the Industrial Disputes Act is number is 179, then 33⅓% of three-fourth of
(a) Mandatory that number is:
(b) Discretionary (a) 716 (b) 787.6
(c) Recommendatory (c) 537 (d) 859.2
(d) Either mandatory or discretionary 106. A shopkeeper allows 16% discount on every
98. Minimum wages act was enacted in the year item. Even after giving the discount, he makes
(a) 1950 (b) 1948 a profit of 8%. If he gives 8% discount instead
of 16% on an item marked for `1800, then
(c) 1960 (d) 1938
what will be his profit percent ? (correct to 2
99. Which of the following is not included under
decimal places) :
the definition of wages given under the
(a) 19 (b) 18.31
payment of wages Act 1936 ?
(c) 18 (d) 18.29
(a) Basic wages
107. A and B are travelling towards each other from
(b) Dearness Allowance
the points P and Q respectively. After crossing
(c) Incentive
1
(d) Gratuity each other, A and B take 6 hours and 8
8
100. First ILO office in India was established.
hours, respectively to reach their destinations
(a) 1919 (b) 1922
Q and P, respectively. If the speed of B is 16.8
(c) 1928 (d) 1933
km/h, then the speed (in km/h) of A is:
101. How many three digit numbers are there in (a) 19.8 (b) 20.4
which all the digits are odd?
(c) 19.2 (d) 20.8
(a) 100 (b) 125
108. Study the following table and answer the
(c) 500 (d) 250
question:
102. The value of 6 – 17 – 2 72 is closest to: Number of students enrolled for Vocational
Courses (VC) in institutes A, B, C, D, E & F.
(a) 2.1 (b) 2.7
(c) 1.7 (d) 2.4
103. The average score in Mathematics of 90
students of sections A and B together is 49. The
number of students in A was 25% more than
that of B, and the average score of the students
in B was 20% higher than that of the students
Practice Set-5 166 YCT
The ratio of the total number of students 114. Read the given statements and conclusions
enrolled for VC in institutes A, C and E in 2015 carefully. Assuming that the information given
to the total number of students enrolled in in the statements is true, even if it appears to be
institutes B and D in 2017, is: at variance with commonly known facts, decide
which of the given conclusions logically follow
(a) 9 : 10 (b) 3 : 4
(s) from the statements.
(c) 3 : 2 (d) 10 : 11
Statements:
109. A can finish one-third of a work in 5 days, B I. Some bats are balls.
can finish 2/5th of the same work in 10 days II. All recquets are tables.
and C can finish 75% of the same work in 15 III. All balls are recquets.
days. They work together for 6 days. The Conclusion:
remaining work will be finished by B alone in: I. Some bats are recquets.
(a) 1½ days (b) 2 days II. All racquets are balls.
(c) 3 days (d) 5 days III. All tables are bats.
110. The perimeter of a square is half the perimeter IV. All racquets are bats.
of a rectangle. The perimeter of the square is (a) Only III and IV follow
40 m. If its breadth is two-thirds of its length, (b) Only conclusion II follows
then what is the area (in m2) of the rectangle? (c) Only conclusions I and II follow
(a) 196 (b) 400 (d) Only conclusion I follows
(c) 384 (d) 321 115. Ananya crossed a road after leaving her house.
By reaching the other side of the road, she
111. The radii of the two circular faces of the
turned left and straightened. If she is now in
frustum of a cone of height 14 cm are 5 cm and
the west direction, then what direction was she
22 before crossing the road?
2 cm. What is its volume in cm3? π =
7 (a) North (b) South
(a) 540 (b) 520 (c) East (d) West
116. Fill in the blank-
(c) 572 (d) 560
Q3C2 S5E2 U8G2 W12I2…….
112. Alloy A contains copper and zinc in the ratio of (a) X17K2 (b) Y15K2
4 : 3 and alloy B contains copper and zinc in (c) Z15K2 (d) Y17K2
the ratio of 5 : 2. A and B are taken in the ratio 117. Introducing a boy, Virat Said, "His mother is
of 5 : 6 and melted to form a new alloy. The the only daughter of my mother-in-law." How
percentage of zinc in the new alloy is closest to : is the boy related to Virat?
(a) 54 (b) 34.2 (a) Son (b) Uncle
(c) 35 (d) 36.8 (c) Brother (d) Husband
113. Read the given statements and conclusions 118. P 3 R I M J 3 Q % W @ / N $ E 5 X Y 1# 8
Using the above series, find the word that does
carefully and decide which of the conclusions
not belong to the group given below.
logically follow(s) from the statements.
P I 3, W N 5, % / 5, M Q @
Statements (a) M Q @ (b) P I 3
i. I have not yet read all the seven Harry (c) W N 5 (d) % / 5
Potter books 119. The arithmetic mean of a set of numbers is 12.
ii. I have read all the Jane Austen books The mean of another set of numbers is 15. If
iii. I don't like reading self-help books even combined mean of both sets is 12.5. Then find
though I have read a few of them just to the ratio of frequency of both sets?
try something new (a) 3 : 1 (b) 5 : 1
Conclusions
(c) 3 : 2 (d) 5 : 2
i. Though book reading is my hobby, I am
very selective about the books I read 120. Find out the median of the given below data?
ii. I have read some of the Harry Potter books In ` daily 10- 15- 20- 25- 30- 35-
iii. I like to experiment while selecting my income 14 19 24 29 34 39
next book to read No. of 5 10 15 20 10 5
(a) Only conclusion (iii) follows
employee
(b) Only conclusion (i) and (iii) follows
(c) Only conclusion (ii) and (iii) follows (a) 20 (b) 12.33
(d) Only conclusion (i) follows (c) 26.4 (d) 25.13
Practice Set-5 167 YCT
SOLUTION : PRACTICE SET- 5
ANSWER KEY
1. (b) 13. (a) 25. (c) 37. (a) 49. (b) 61. (a) 73. (a) 85. (a) 97. (b) 109.(a)
2. (a) 14. (c) 26. (c) 38. (a) 50. (a) 62. (d) 74. (c) 86. (a) 98. (b) 110. (c)
3. (b) 15. (a) 27. (c) 39. (d) 51. (b) 63. (a) 75. (d) 87. (d) 99. (d) 111. (c)
4. (c) 16. (c) 28. (d) 40. (d) 52. (a) 64. (d) 76. (c) 88. (c) 100. (c) 112. (c)
5. (a) 17. (b) 29. (d) 41. (a) 53. (d) 65. (b) 77. (c) 89. (d) 101. (b) 113. (c)
6. (d) 18. (c) 30. (b) 42. (b) 54. (d) 66. (d) 78. (d) 90. (b) 102. (d) 114. (d)
7. (d) 19. (b) 31. (c) 43. (c) 55. (c) 67. (d) 79. (a) 91. (c) 103. (b) 115. (b)
8. (c) 20. (b) 32.(c) 44. (c) 56. (d) 68. (c) 80. (d) 92. (a) 104. (c) 116. (d)
9. (a) 21. (c) 33. (a) 45. (d) 57. (d) 69. (c) 81. (c) 93. (b) 105. (a) 117. (a)
10. (d) 22. (b) 34. (c) 46. (a) 58.(c) 70. (c) 82. (d) 94. (b) 106.(d) 118. (d)
11. (d) 23.(d) 35. (a) 47. (d) 59. (c) 71.(c) 83. (a) 95. (c) 107. (c) 119. (b)
12. (a) 24. (c) 36. (b) 48. (c) 60. (a) 72. (d) 84. (d) 96. (c) 108. (c) 120. (d)
SOLUTION
1. (b) 7. (d)
The above sentence use 'because' in place of 'due to', Erudite- Naving or showing knowledge that is gained by
would be appropriate. because conjunction is used to studying, Antonym - ignorant. the meaning of other
show 'Reasons' So the correct sentence is :- words is:-
Preeti is absent from the meeting because she is out of Scholarly- educated, erudite
station. High brow- double-dome
2. (a) Savvy - astute, canny
In the above sentence 'yet' will be used in place of 'but' 8. (c)
because 'But' is used when a sense of contradiction Ominous - antonym- auspicious-propitious, upbeat.
appears in the sentence and 'yet' is used in a doubt ful Meaning of other words is:
situation. So the correct sentence is :- The lady listened Foreboding-Augury, auspice, boding
carefully to my complaint yet I doubt she will not do Threatening- grievous, menacing, Jeopardizing
anything about it.
Baleful- Adverse, baneful, detrimental
3. (b)
9. (a)
In this sentence the appropriate word is 'the' and 'the'
One word for 'speech made without preparation' is
because both noun is used for 'specific' purpose.
'Extempore' other words have different meaning.
Correct sentence- You can go to the national Art
Gallery but I want to visit the zoo first. 10. (d)
One word for 'Government run by a small group of
4. (c)
people' is 'Oligarchy' other words are-
Here the appropriate fill in blank is Article 'An'. An is
Monarchy - Absolute sovereignty by a single person.
used for vowel and 'A' is for consonant.
Plutocracy- Government by the wealthy.
Correct sentence- You have to do an intensive training
to become a nurse. Aristocracy- Government by the best individuals
11. (d)
5. (a)
Given idiom/phrase 'Draw a blank' means 'be
Embargo –a legal prohibition on commerce, Synonym - unsuccessful' other words have different meaning.
Barrier - 12. (a)
Meaning of other words- Given idiom/phrase 'No strings attached' means
Prescribe – specify define 'Without conditions to restrictions' other words may give
Justify – defend, maintain, uphold. different meaning.
6. (d) 13. (a)
Obstacle–Something that impede progress or In the above sentence use 'asked me' in place of 'asked
from' me because while making indirect, told, asked etc
achievement, Synonym -‘Barrier’
along with direct object is used without any preposition.
meaning of other words:- Hence, 'form' will met be used.
clearance–Certification as clear of objection, allowance Correct sentence :-He asked me if I was interested in a
Accessory–a thing of secondary or lesser importance. career in modelling.
Practice Set-5 168 YCT
14. (c) 23.(d)
In the above sentence use 'Posted' in place of 'Posting' To break the dead lock between Congress and Muslim
because the sentence is in passive voice so verb should league, C. Rajgopalachari proposed a set of plans in
be in their from. 1944. Which is called C.R. Formula or Rajaji Formula.
Correct sentence :- Proposals were-
The letter was posted yesterday by my brother. (1) Muslim league would demand independence from the
British.
15. (a)
(2) Cooperation in provisional government.
In the blank space use 'obstructing' according to proper
(3) Establishment of a commission for demarcating the
sense of the sentence. areas of Hindus and Muslims.
Correct sentence- The truck was obstructing the traffic (4) The all proposals to come to fruition on only if
and the policeman asked the driver to move off. Britain transfers full powers to India.
16. (c) But Mo.Ali Jinna rejected C.R. formula.
In the above sentence use 'Discreet' according to sense of 24. (c)
the sentence. other words are not appropriate. On 23rd March 1940, Lahore session of Muslim League
Correct sentence:- was held under chairmanship of Muhammad Ali Jinnah.
The family made discreet enquiries about his In this session they firstly demanded the creation of
background. separate Muslim state "Pakistan" The term "Pakistan"
17. (b) was coined by Chaudhari Rehmat Ali in 1939. Gandhi
Synonym of word Jovial is 'Joyous' meaning of other started his Dandi March on 12th March 1930. During the
words. underground resistance of Quit India movement of 1942,
Jeering - play safe leaders like Aruna Asaf Ali, Sucheta Kripalani, Ram
Judgemental - guess Monohar Lohiya and Jayaprakash Narayan were
Jealous - spiteful foremost active. Also during this movement congress
launched a radio broadcasting. Jayprakash Narayan was
18. (c)
first general secretary of Congress socialist party.
Synonym of Transmit is 'convey' (to transfer or deliver)
25. (c)
19. (b)
In the famous Irwin Declaration on 31 October 1929 it
Antonym of word 'Jovial' is 'Gloomy' meaning of other
talks about giving India the status of a dominion state. In
words is :
December 1929 the Congress Session was held in Lahore
Hesitant- Slow to act or proceed, dubious by Jawaharlal Nehru and it demanded complete Home
Tired- a weary, drained Rule, an agreement was reached in Delhi on 5 March,
20. (b) 1931, this agreement is called Gandhi-Irwin Agreement.
Antonym of word 'Tyrant' is 'Benefactor' meaning of other 26. (c)
words is: On March 22, 1947 AD, Lord Mountbatten, the last
Rival- Compeer, equivalent, compete (Verb) British Viceroy of India, came to India. On June 3, 1947
Patron- benefactor, a special guardian, protector AD, a plan was announced by Lord Mountbatten, which
Champion- Advocate, apostle, backer is known as the 'Mountbatten Plan' (or the 3rd June
21. (c) plan). Based on the Mountbatten Plan, the Indian
Ropar, modern Rupnagar, is the historical site of Indus Independence Bill was introduced in the British
Valley Civilization which is situated on the banks of Parliament on July 4, 1947, by prime minster clement
river Sutlej in Punjab. From here earthen pots, copper Attlee which was approved on 18 July, 1947.
rings, bronze celtus terracotta cakes, stamps, burial of 27. (c)
dogs with humans and copper axes have been the main Sarvodaya is a term meaning 'universal uplift or
evidence. All the remaining sites are situated on the progress of all. The term was first coined by Gandhi as
banks of river Indus. the title of his 1908 translation of John Ruskins critique
22. (b) on political economy, "Unto This Last". In Gandhian
Sant Dnyaneshwar was also known as Jnaneshwar, Philosophy Sarvodaya is the true panacea for all types of
Gnyaneshwar, Dnyandev, Mauli or Jnanadeva was a 13th social or political problems experienced by Indian
century Marathi Saint, yogi and philosopher of the Nath society.
Vaishnava tradition. He lived just 21 years and authored 28. (d)
Dnyaneshwari which is a commentary on Bhagavad Gita Lord Linlithgow was the Viceroy of India from 1936-
and He also wrote Amrutanubhav. He was born in 1275 1944 and the Cripps Mission came in India during his
on the occasion of Krishna Janmashtami in a Marathi tenure. On the other hand Lord Wavell was Viceroy of
speaking Brahmin family. Sant Dnyaneshwar's India from 1944 to 1947. Shimla Pact was one of
Dnyaneshwari is a simplified version of Bhagavad Gita important incident of his tenure. Hence the option is
in Marathi to reach out to those who have not read Gita. matched incorrectly while the other matches are correct.
Practice Set-5 169 YCT
29. (d) 35. (a)
The Subsidiary Alliance was a system devised by Lord The president of India is elected indirectly by the single -
Wellesley in 1798.Lord Dalhousie served as Governor- transferable voting system. in article 55, the manner of
General of India from 1848 to 1856. During this period, election of president is defined by which elected
the Second Anglo-Sikh War (1848-1849) was fought in Members of both the Houses of Parliament and
which the Sikhs were defeated and Dalhousie was Legislative Assemblies of the states and elected members
successful in annexing the whole of Punjab to the British of delhi and Puducherry take part in election of the
administration. During his tenure, the first railway line President of India.
between Bombay and Thane was opened in 1853 and in 36. (b)
the same year, Calcutta and Agra were connected by According to Article 112 of the Indian Constitution, the
telegraph. His other reforms include the setting up of Union Budget of a year, also referred to as the Annual
P.W.D. and the drafting of the Widow Remarriage Act
Financial Statement, is a statement of the estimated
(1856). Charles Wood, a British Liberal Politician and
receipts and expenditure of the government for that
Member of Parliament sent the “Wood’s despatch” to
particular year.
Governor-General Lord Dalhousie recommending some
important changes in the education system. 37. (a)
30. (b) Article 84 of the Constitution of India envisages that a
person shall not be qualified to be chosen to fill up a seat
Ambika Charan Mazumdar was the President of the
in the Parliament unless he is a citizen of India.
Indian National Congress for the Lucknow Session 1916.
Minimum age of qualification is 25 years and 30 years
1. The major achievements of Lucknow Pact was that the
for loksabha and council of state respectively.
moderates and radicals reunited and they jointly
demanded self rule for India. 38. (a)
2. The Congress and the Muslim league reached a The Contempt of Courts Act was passed in 1971 to
settlement and both decided to struggle together. define and limit the powers of certain courts in punishing
31. (c) contempt of courts and to regulate their procedure.
Vernacular Press Act was enacted in British India in the 39. (d)
year 1878. The Act was proposed by Lord Lytton, then The National Commission for Women (NCW) is a statutory
Viceroy of India. Purpose of this act was to stop the body of the government of India, concerned with advising
freedom of press of Indian languages. Lord Ripon the government on all policy matters affecting women. It
repealed the act in 1882. was established on 31st January, 1992. The first head of the
32.(c) commission was Jayanti Patnaik. At present Rekha Sharma
The article 17 of the Indian Constitution under the is the Chairperson.
chapter "Fundamental Rights" forbids untouchability in 40. (d)
any form. Though the term untouchability has never been The All India Services comprises of the three prestigious
used in the constitution. But it has been described as the Civil Services of India and they are the Indian
social inabilities imposed by society on any individual, Administrative Services. (IAS) Indian Police Service
due to his birth in certain caste and class. (IPS) and Indian Forest Service (IFS). The common
33. (a) exceptional feature of the All India Services is that the
The Constitution of India grants Fundamental Rights to candidates selected for these civil services are recruited
all citizens of India, irrespective of race, place of birth, by the centre (union government in federal polity)
religion, caste or gender. Right to Equality is one of the however their services are allotted under various state
six fundamental rights provided in the Constitution of cadres and they have the accountability to serve both
India. Article 14 to 18 of the Constitution states the under the state and the centre.
provisions related to the right to equality. It forms the 41. (a)
foundation of all the other rights and liberties. Article 17 State emergency declared under the provision of Article
under right to equality of the Constitution prohibited 356 by the President. It must be approved by parliament
"untouchability". It states that untouchability is abolished within six months. After approval by parliament it may
and its practice in any form is forbidden. The remain in operation for not more than 6 months from the
enforcement of any disability arising out of date of proclamation unless after parliament extends it.
untouchability shall be punishable offence in accordance Parliament can extend it by approval after every six
with law. months. It can be withdrawn anytime by the President.
34. (c) 42. (b)
In the given option, maternity leave for employed Ecology is the study of organisms, populations and
women is the provision which has not been concluded in communities as they are related to one another and
the directive principles of state policy. Despite of that interact in the ecosystem they comprise. There are two
parliament has mentioned this provision in Maternity main components included in ecology Biotic and Abiotic
Benefit Act, 1961. components.
Practice Set-5 170 YCT
43. (c) 50. (a)
The Montreal protocol is an international treaty designed The term collateral refers to an asset that a lender accept
to protect the ozone layer by reducing production of as security for a loan. Collateral may take the form of
chloro floro corbon (C.F.C.) It was agreed on 16 real estate or other kinds of assets, depending on the
September 1987 and came in to force on 1 January 1989. purpose of the loan. The collateral acts as a form of
All U.N. countries rectified this protocol. protection for the lender. That is, if the borrower defaults
44. (c) on their loan payments, the lender can seize the collateral
In economics, resources is defined as a service or other and sell it to recoup some or all of its losses.
asset used to produce goods and services that meet 51. (b)
human needs and wants. Major problems in development The subsistence requirement or basic needs are - food,
of resources are- (i) Depletion of resources for satisfying clothes and shelter. Education is used as the subsistence
the greed of few individuals (ii) over-utilization of the factor to estimate poverty as due to lack of education or
illiteracy power to earn money becomes less. According
resources (iii) Accumulation of resources in few hands
to NITI Aayog's National Multidimensional Poverty
etc. An equitable distribution of resources in not a major
Index Based on NFHS-4 (2015-16), While 25.01 percent
problem in development of recourses.
of the population was multidimensionality poor in the
45. (d) country the poverty ratio was high as 32.75 percent in
According to Census 2011, Thane, Maharashtra from the rural areas during that year. This was against 8.1 percent
above option has the maximum population (11,060,148). of the population in Urban area.
In India with largest population in 2011. 52. (a)
46. (a) Open Market Operation is the instrument of Monetary
The currency devaluation is the reduction in the value of policy. The tools of fiscal policy are taxes, expenditure
country's currency against another foreign currency. It is and a nation's budget. They consists of changes in
used when monetary authorities need to improve the government revenues of rates of tax structure so as to
country's trade balance by increasing exports and making encourage or restrict private expenditures on
cheaper but decreasing imports making it costlier. consumption and investment.
The Indian Rupee was devalued in 1949, 1966 and 1991. 53. (d)
But in 1991 it was carried out in 2 steps → on July 1 and Atal Pension Yojana (APY), a flagship social security
July 3. scheme of the Government of India, was launched on 9th
47. (d) May, 2015 in Kolkata. This scheme replaced the
previous Swavalamban Yojana and was established to
Short term contraction and expansions in economic
provide old age income security to the workers
activity is called business cycle. There are Four phases of
belonging to the unorganised sector. Any citizen of India
these cycle →
can join the APY scheme. The age of the subscriber
(1) Expansion (Boom, Upswing, Prosperity) should be between 18-40 years. It provides a minimum
(2) Peak (Upper turning point) guaranteed pension ranging from Rs. 1000 to Rs. 5000
(3) Contraction (Recession, Downswing, Depression) on attaining 60 years of age.
(4) Trough (Lower turning print) 54. (d)
These are also known as trade cycles. They are periodic. The following precautions should be taken to prevent
48. (c) overloading of household electric circuits.
Mission Indradhanush was launched on 25 December, 1. The fuse must be connected in the circuit.
2014. It is an immunisation programme. In India this 2. Many devices must not increase the load by
programme was introduced in 1978 as Expanded connecting the same circuit.
Programme of Immunization (EPI). In 1985 it was 3. Bad devices should not be connected to the circuit.
modified to Universal Immunization Programme (UIP).
4. Electrical wires in electrical circuits should be covered
Mission Indradhanush aims to fully immunize more than
by insulating material of superior quality.
89 lakh children who are either partially vaccinated or
55. (c)
unvacccinated under UIP. The diseases being targeted
The force of attraction between molecules of the same
are→ diptheria, whooping cough, tetanus, poliomyelitis,
tuberculosis, measles, meningitis and Hepatities B. substance is called cohesive force and the force of
attraction between molecules of different matter is called
49. (b)
adhesive force. The cohesive force of mercury is greater
The Heckscher-Ohlin model theory was developed by the than the force of adhesion with the glass while the
Swedish economist Bertil Ohlin (1899-1979) on the basis cohesive force of water is less than the force of adhesion
of work by his teacher the Swedish economist Eli fillip with the glass. That is why by spreading a drop of water
Heckscher (1879-1952). Ohlin was awarded Nobel Prize on a plate of glass, a thin layer is formed while the drop
for Economics in 1977 for his work on the theory. of mercury remains circular.
Practice Set-5 171 YCT
56. (d) Fermentation is an anaerobic pathway- a common
Lead metal is used as shield in a nuclear reactor. The pathway in the majority of prokaryotes and unicellular
nuclear reactor is a device in which nuclear process eukaryotes. In this process, glucose is partially oxidised
fission occures at a controlled rate. For nuclear reactor to form acids and alcohol.This process is commercially
enriched uranium having nearly 6% U-235 is required. employed in the food and beverage industries, and
57. (d) pharmaceutical industries.
Henry's law states that soft drinks and soda bottles are 66. (d)
sealed under high pressure to increases the solubility of Hydralazine drug is used to cure Hypertension and
CO2. cardiac related disease. Lowering high blood pressure
58.(c) helps prevent strokes, heart attacks, and kidney
Total dissolved solids in water can be reduced by the problems. Hydralazine is called a vasodilator. It works
technique of Reverse Osmosis (R.O.), Distillation and by relaxing blood vessels so blood can flow through the
Ion Exchange or Deionisation system. body more easily.
59. (c) Risedronate: It is used to treat osteoporosis caused by
menopause, or steroid use.
Homeostasis is any self-regulating process by which an
Diazepam: It is used to treat anxiety, alcohol
organism tends to maintain stability while adjusting to
withdrawal, and seizures. It is also used to relieve muscle
conditions that are best for its survival.
spasms and to provide sedation before medical
60. (a) procedures.
Trachoma is a disease of the eye caused by infection Folic Acid: It is known as Vitamin B-9, Folacin, Folate,
with the bacterium Chlamydia trachomatis. Blindness Pteroylglutamic acid. It is one of the eight water-soluble
from trachoma is irreversible. It is a public health vitamins.Folic acid is pivotal for making red blood cells,
problem in 44 countries, and is responsible for the helping in rapid cell division and growth, synthesis of
blindness or visual impairment of about 1.9 million RNA and DNA and enhancing brain activities. It holds
people. Based on march 2020 data, 137 million people high significance in maintaining the growth and
live in trachoma endemic areas and are at risk of replication of cells and tissues during the growth years
trachoma blindness. such as during pregnancy, infancy, childhood and
61. (a) adolescence.
White blood cell are also known as leukocyte, lacking 67. (d)
haemoglobin. These are also known as defence cells,
Vitamin A and D are those, if taken in excess can be
they are responsible to protect our body from pathogens.
dangerous as they are stored in the body because they
It is of two types granular and agranular-
require in micro quantities in human body. ‘Vitamin’was
Granular Agranular
termed by C.Funk firstly. The essential vitamins are A,
Eosinophils Lymphocytes
B, C, D, E and K for human body. They are necessary
Nutrophils Monocytes
for regulation of various metabolic activities in body.
Basophils
Vitamin C and B-complex are water soluble vitamins
The life span of W.B.C. generally occurs about 3 to 5 while Vitamin A, D, E, K are fat soluble.
day.
68. (c)
62. (d)
Cytoplasm is a thick solution (Jelly like) that fills each Seaweed are the major source of iodine they have a
cell. It is enclosed by the cell membrane. It is made up of plenty amount of iodine. Around 4500 microgram iodine
water, salts and proteins. In eukaryotic cells, the is collected from one fourth of seaweed.
cytoplasm includes all of the material inside the cell and 69. (c)
outside of the nucleus. ARPANET is considered a precursor to the internet.
63. (a) ARPANET was launched by the United States
Fertilization which takes place inside the female body is Department of defense's advanced research projects
called internal fertilization. The fertilization which takes agency 'ARPA'. ARPANET was the first network to
place outside the female body is external fertilization. implement an initial packet switching network and
Internal fertilization is followed by mammals (including TCP/IP protocol suite.
humans), reptiles, birds, bryophytes and Tracheophytes, 70. (c)
while external fertilization is followed by Amphibians, Optical fibre is a system in which information is sent
algae, fish etc.
from one place to another in the form of light points.
64. (d) Total internal reflection is the basic concept behind the
Helium is added to the Oxygen supply of deep sea divers optical fiber. Optical fiber was successfully developed by
because it is less soluble in blood than nitrogen at high
corning Glass Works in 1970.
pressure.
65. (b) 71.(c)
Fermentation is a type of anaerobic respiration. A Computer virus is a program or pieces of code that
Anaerobic respiration is a type of cellular respiration gets loaded onto your computer without your knowledge
where respiration takes place in the absence of oxygen. and runs against to your will.
Practice Set-5 172 YCT
72. (d) acquiring a truck the benefit of which will be received in
The operating system is a system software that organizes coming years. So this expenditure is of capital nature.
the hardware resources of a computer system, such as 80. (d)
memory, processor and input-output devices. The The purpose of providing depreciation in the business
operating system acts as a bridge between hardware and has the following objective.
software. Examples of operating system are- UNIX, (i) To ascertain true profit/loss of business the
Ubuntu, MS DOS, Windows-10, LINUX IBM OASH/2 accounting of depreciation in mandatory because with
Android, IOS, Symbian etc. Whereas, MS-Excel in a the passage of time the productive capacity of asset
spread sheet developed by Microsoft which is used to decreases.
save & analyse numerical data. (ii) To maintain fund for replacement of Asset.
73. (a) (iii) to allocate total cost of its asset into its working life.
Collection of information on saved as a unit is called file. 81. (c)
In the folder the file is organised so folder in medium to The double entry system of accounting originated in Italy
organize the files. In the file, the information is stored & in 1494 when Lucas F Pacioli wrote a book on
this information in paper form in known as document. accounting named summa de Arithmetica Geometrica
74. (c) proportioniet Proportinatha.
Dial-up internet access is a form of Internet access that 82. (d)
uses the facilities of the public switched telephone The realization principle of accounting is not applicable
network (PSTN) to established a connection to an in long term contract works in which a fixed part of work
Internet Service Provider by dialling a telephone number (usually 1/4th) is considered to be realized after
on a conventional telephone line. It is considered the completion of a part of work.
slowest internet service among all. 83. (a)
75. (d) Delegation of authority means to entrust authority to a
The transistor is a semiconductor device mainly used as subordinate. It is common in an organisation that while
an amplifier. It was an important discovery of the 20 dividing the work authority is granted to subordinates.
century. Transistors are used as electronic switches. It is However it does not mean abdication of responsibility
made up of semiconductor material with at least three because no manger can escape from responsibility by
terminals as well as an external circuit. delegating authority.
76. (c) 84. (d) :
Capitalist economy is an economic system in which all Principle of Indemnity applies to fire insurance as well as
the decision such as what to produce, how to produce marine insurance. This principle states that the insured
and for whom to produce is taken for profit motive, Its should be compensated for the loss so that he may reach
features are as follow. that position which he was before the loss.
(i) Right to private property. However this principle does not apply to life insurance as
(ii) Existence of competition. the loss of life cannot be compensated.
(iii) Freedom of choice to consumers. 85. (a)
However service motive is not its feature. The order for import of goods is called indent. It is of
77. (c) several types such as open indent, closed indent as well
Total production = 300 units as confirmatory indent.
Price of good = 60 per unit 86. (a)
cost of total = 300 × 60 = ` 18000 The process of evaluation of employee is called
Production performance appraisal. It is systematic evaluation of
Average total cost = 36 per unit employee on performance to his job.
Average cost of total production =300 × 36 = ` 10,800 87. (d)
Profit = 18000 –10800 = ` 7,200 Insurable interest is one of the important features of
78. (d) every insurance policy including life insurance, marine
A company can re-issue its forfeited shares at premium, insurance as well as fire insurance. This principle states
at face value or at discount. The issue of share at that insured must have an insurable interest in the subject
premium means more than its face value on the other matter of insurance otherwise insurance would become a
hand issue of share at discount means less than its face gamble.
value. One thing should be noted that in the latter case 88. (c)
the amount of discount allowed at the time of re-issue
The objective of accounting are as follow.
should not be more than the amount forfeited on such
share. (i) Keeping systematic record of business
79. (a) (ii) Protecting the assets of business
Out of the following expenses only option (a) purchase (iii) Meeting legal requirements
of truck is of capital nature expenditure. (iv) To find profit/loss for the year.
Capital expenditure are amount spent by organization to However maximization of result is not function of
acquire or upgrade its fixed assets. Here the company is accounting rather it is function of business management.
Practice Set-5 173 YCT
89. (d) 101. (b)
Out of the following only option (d) principle of The smallest three digit number in which all digits are
accuracy is not principle of accounting. Hence option (d) odd · 111
is correct. The largest three digit number in which all digits are odd ·
90. (b) 999
Every Organization fulfills some social objective in Total required no's between 111 and 199 = 5×5 = 25
addition to economic objective this happens due to the Total required no's between 311 and 399 = 5×5 = 25
fact that business organization devices all of its resources Total required no's between 511 and 599 = 5×5 = 25
from society, so to fulfill this obligation business Total required no's between 711 and 799 = 5×5 = 25
undertakes various social objectives such as employment Total required no's between 911 and 995 = 5×5 = 25
generation, supply of standard product, environment Total numbers = 25 × 5 = 125
conservation etc. 102. (d)
91. (c)
( ) ( )
2 2
On the retirement of partner, the revenues created out of 6 – 17 – 2 72 = 6 – 9 + 8 −2 9× 8
profit should be transferred to the capital account of all
the partners in their old profit sharing ratio. So that every = 6 – ( 9 – 8) 2 = 6 – 3 + 8
partner can get his share in the undivided past profits.
92. (a) = 3 + 8 = ( 2) 2 +1+ 2 2 = ( 2 +1) 2
Capital is considered as liability of business due to the = ( 2 +1) = 1.41 + 1 = 2.41 ≈ 2.4
separate entity concept. This concept states that business
has separate existence apart from its proprietor. Hence, 103. (b)
the capital invested by him is a liability for business. Ratio of student of section A and B = 125 : 100 = 5 : 4 =
50 : 40
93. (b) Ratio of average mark of student of section A and B.
On purchase of old furniture, ` 8000 were spent on its = 100 : 120
repairs, this amount should be debited to furniture = 5 : 6
account because this a kind of capital expenditure. Let the average marks A & B be 5x and 6x
94. (b) ∴ 50 × 5x + 40 × 6x = 90 × 49
An individual dispute becomes industrial dispute when it 490 x = 90 × 49
is taken up by union or substantial number of workmen. x = 9
95. (c) ∴ Average marks of section A students = 9 × 5 = 45
No person employed in a public utility service shall go 104. (c)
on strike without giving notice of the strike to the Let total number of students = 9x
employer. Apart from this he will not go on strike even
before 14 days from the date of notice. The objective
behind this is that public utility services can be kept
running without any restriction.
96. (c)
To be a member of trade union, a person must attain the
age of at least fifteen years and above.
97. (b)
According to section 10 of the industrial dispute Act
1947-the power of the government to refer an industrial
dispute is discretionary.
98. (b)
The minimum wages act was enacted on 15th of March
1948. It is an act to provide for fixing minimum rates of Number of students less than 12 years
wages in certain employments.
= 3x + 7 x = 16 x
99. (d) 3 3
The definition of wages given under payment of wages According to the question–
act 1936 does not include gratuity because it is a gift 16 x = 480
after retirement and not wages. 3
100. (c) x = 90
First ILO office was established in India in the year 5
1928. Its objective was for the safety and welfare of of total number of student = 9x × 5 = 5x = 225
18 18 2
workers in India.
Practice Set-5 174 YCT
105. (a) Work done by A, B and C in 6 days
Let the number ix x.
· 6 + +
1 1 1
2 2 15 25 20
66 % =
3 3 47
1 75 2
· 6×
x× × × = 179 300
8 100 3 47
x = 179 × 16 = 2864 · Part
50
3 1
thus, 2864 × × Remaining work · 1 −
47 3
= Part
4 3 50 50
= 716
3
106.(d) ∴ Time taken by B to do Part of work
SP of article after 16% discount 50
3 3
= 1800 ×
84
= 1512 · 25 × ·
100 50 2
1
Now, CP of the article = =
1512
× 100 = 1400
· 1 days
2
108
110. (c)
SP of article after 8% discount instead of 16%
Given,
1800 × 92 Perimeter of square = 40 meter
= =1656
100 Perimeter of rectangle · 40×2 = 80 meter _____(i)
1656 − 1400 Let length of the rectangle is L
Now, Profit % = × 100
1400 2L
Hence breadth of the rectangle ·
256 3
= × 100 According to the question
1400
= 18.285% 2L
Perimeter of rectangle · 2 L +
≈18.29% 3
107. (c) 5L
⇒ 80 = 2 {From equation (i)
VA
=
tB
(By formula) 3
VB tA ⇒ L = 24 m.
2L 2 × 24
VA 8×8 and breadth · = · 16m
= 3 3
16.8 49 2
VA 8
∴ area of the rectangle · l × b = 24×16 = 384 m
= 111. (c)
16.8 7
VA = 19.2 km/h
108. (c)
Number of students enrolled for VC in institutes A, C
and E in 2015 = 150+220+200=570
Number of students enrolled for VC in institutes B and D
in 2017 = 200+180 = 380 Volume of frustum of cone
∴ Required Ratio = 570 : 380
=3:2
1
(
= πh R 2 + r 2 + R.r
3
)
1 22
109.(a)
= × × 14 ( 5 )2 + ( 2 )2 + 5 × 2
Time taken by A to finish the work 3 7
3 1 22
· × 5 · 15 days = × × 14 × 39
1 3 7
Time taken by B to finish the work = 572 cm3
5 112. (c)
· × 10 · 25days
2 Copper : Zinc
Time taken by C to finish the work ·
15
× 100 A→ 4 : 3
75 B→ 5 : 2
· 20 days On mixing A and B in the ratio of 5 : 6, respectively
Practice Set-5 175 YCT
The new alloy → (4 ×5 + 5 ×6) : (3×5 + 2×6) 119. (b)
= 50 : 27 Let the number of terms in the first set of number
27 (frequency) = n1
Zinc Percentage = × 100
77 and the number of terms in the second set of number
= 35.06% (frequency)= n2
113. (c) According to the question–
Only the conclusion (ii) and (iii) follows from the
statements. ⇒ 12 × n1 + 15 × n 2 = ( n1 + n 2 ) ×12.5
114. (d) ⇒ 12n1 + 15n 2 = 12.5n1 + 12.5n 2
Drawing the venn diagram according to question-
⇒ 15n 2 − 12.5n 2 = 12.5n1 − 12n1
⇒ 2.5n 2 = .5n1
n1 5
⇒ =
n2 1
It is clear from the venn diagram that some bats are So ratio both group's frequency · 5 : 1
recquets.
115. (b) 120. (d)
daily income in (`) Number of staff Cumulative
frequency
9.5 – 14.5 5 5
14.5 – 19.5 10 15
19.5 – 24.5 15 30 =cf
Therefore it is clear that Ananya was in the South direction 24.5 – 29.5 20 50
before crossing the road.
29.5 – 34.5 10 60
116. (d)
The series is as follows 34.5 – 39.5 5 65
Q +2
→ S +2
→ U +2
→ W +2
→ Y n = 65
+2 +3 +4 +5
3 → 5 → 8 → 12 → 17 n 65
+2 +2 +2 +2
∴ = = 32.5
C2 → E 2 → G 2 → I2 → K 2 2 2
117. (a) it is included in the cumulative frequency 50
According to the question the blood relation diagram is So median class interval will be (24.5 – 29.5)
as follows – minimum limit (L) = 24.5
square height (h) = 5
frequency (f) = 20
The cumulative frequency of the class before the median
class. (cf) = 30
n
− cf
Hence it is clear that the boy is "Son" of Virat. ∴ median = L + 2 × h
118. (d) f
From the given options.
32.5 − 30
= 24.5 + ×5
20
2.5
= 24.5 +
4
= 24.5 + 0.625
It is clear that option (d) is different from all others. = 25.125 ≈ 25.13
Practice Set-5 176 YCT